1. The species determining the ability of large number of other species to persist in a community are called:
(2) Keystone species
(3) Dominant species
(4) Endemic species
2. The composition of rhizospheric microorganisms are dependent on the soil:
A. Texture
C. pH
D. Elasticity
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(1) Only A
(2) Neither A nor B
(3) A, B and C
(4) A, B, C and D
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other as Reason (R):
Assertion (A) : Chemosynthesis plays an important role in 'S' cycle.
Reason (R) : In chemosynthesis, some sulphur compounds act as a source of energy.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
4. Cryopreservation involves storage of cells from embryos and shoot tips in liquid nitrogen at :
(1) - 196°C
(2) 5°C
(3) 0°C
(4) 100°C
5. A species, the population of which is low enough for it to be at risk of becoming extinct but not low enough that it is in imminent danger of extinction, is called _________
(4) Rare species
6. The concept of biosphere reserve was launched as a part of UNESCO's Man and Biosphere programme in:
(1) 1972
(2) 1974
(3) 1970
(4) 1971
7. Which one of the following termite gut microbe contributes to degradation of cellulose ?
(1) Citrobacter sp.
(2) Trichonympha sp.
(3) Enterococcus sp.
(4) Enterobacter sp.
8. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Ecotone shows more diversity.
Reason (R): Ecotone is a transition zone between two or more diverse communities.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
9."Ecology is the 'Science of Community" was stated by :
(1) Charles Elton
(2) Karl Fredericks
(3) Eugene Odum
(4) Frederic Clements
10. The largest unit climax community representing well defined climatic zone is referred to as:
(1) Landscape
(2) Biota
(3) Biosphere
(4) Biome
11. Which of the following are sedimentary rocks?
A. Geyserite
B. Pumice rocks
C. Chalk
D. Limestone
(1) A, B, C
(2) A, B, D
(3) A, C, D
(4) B, C, D
12. Which of the following has the longest residence time?
(1) Groundwater
(2) Ice caps and glaciers
(3) Lakes
(4) Oceans
13. Which of the statements given below are correct with reference to equilibrium?
A. Entropy remains constant.
B. Used to define reversible reaction changes.
C. Thermodynamically controlled process.
D. There may be a net heat transfer.
(1) A, B, C
(2) A, C, D
(3) A, B, D
(4) B, C, D
14. Bulk density of soil may be calculated as:
(1) Moisture content of soil / Volume of soil
(2) Weight of soil / Volume of soil
(3) Moisture content of soil / Weight of soil
(4) Volume of soil / Weight of soil
15. The factors that slow soil formation include:
A. High lime content in parent material
B. High quartz content in parent material
C. High humidity
D. High clay content in parent material
(1) A, B, C
(2) A, C, D
(3) A, B, D
(4) B, C, D
16. Which of the following is known as Fe-loving element?
(1) Ironophile
(2) Siderophile
(3) Lithophile
(4) Metallophile
17. The outpouring basaltic magma in effusive volcanic eruption has :
(1) Low viscosity and Low gas
(2) High viscosity and Low gas
(3) Low viscosity and High gas
(4) High viscosity and High gas
18. The movement of fluids through porous materials like rocks due to pressure differences, distance and flow connectivity is explained by:
(1) Fick's law of diffusion
(2) Darcy's law
(3) Coefficient of permeability
(4) Steno's law
19. The maximum permissible limit for Fluoride in drinking water is:
(1) 0-15 mg/L
(2) 1.5 mg/L
(3) 5 mg/L
(4) 0-5 mg/L
20. Sumatra Tsunami, 2004 was generated by an earthquake measuring ________ on Richter Scale, caused by the subduction of _________
(1) 8-0, India plate below the Burma plate
(2) 9-3, Indo-Australian plate below the Burma plate
(3) 7.0, plate to the east of Nicobar Island
(4) 8-5, India plate above the Burma plate
21. Hydel projects provide:
(1) Only electricity
(2) Electricity and irrigation
(3) Aquaculture, electricity, irrigation and flood control
(4) Flood control
22. The largest solar park is located in =
(1) Rajasthan, India
(2) Ningxia, China
(3) Karnataka, India
(4) Coahuila, Mexico
23. Which among the following is used as a moderator in nuclear reactors?
(1) Plutonium
(2) Lead
(3) Graphite
(4) Cesium
24. The correct distribution of solar energy spectrum is:
(1) 5% ultraviolet, 45% visible light, 50% infrared radiation
(2) 0% ultraviolet, 40% visible light, 60% infrared radiation
(3) 100% visible light
(4) 40% ultraviolet, 40% visible light, 20% infrared radiation
25. The term PCRA stands for
(1) Petroleum Council Research Association
(2) Public Conservation Research Association
(3) Petroleum Conservation Research Association
(4) Partial Counting of Remaining Amendment
26. Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below:
List I
a. Vast tracts of land covered with wind power turbines
b. Used directly for heating buildings
c. Clean form of energy
-------------------
List II
i. Solar
ii. Wind power
iii. Geothermal energy
Codes:
(1) a-iii, b-ii, c-i
(2) a-ii, b-iii, c-i
(3) a-i, b-ii, c-iii
(4) a-iii, b-i, c-ii
27. Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below :
List I (Type of coal)
a. Peat
b. Bituminous
c. Anthracite
-----------------
List II (Energy content) (MJ/kg)
i. 31 to 36
ii. 11 to 16
iii. 25 to 35
(1) a-ii, b-iii, c-i
(2) a-iii, b-ii, c-i
(3) a-ii, b-i, c-iii
(4) a-iii, b-i, c-ii
28. The petroleum product used for paving roads, roofing materials and floor covering is :
(1) Petroleum jelly
(2) Paraffin
(3) Petroleum coke
(4) Asphalt
29. The equation representing Stefan-Boltzmann law is:
30. Arrange the following Electromagnetic waves in the increasing order of wavelength :
A. Visible rays
B. Radio waves
C. X-rays
D. Cosmic rays
(1) D< C< A< B
(2) C< D< B< A
(3) D< A< B< C
(4) B< A< C< D
31. In troposphere, the temperature of the ambient air usually decreases with an increase in altitude. The rate of temperature change in dry adiabatic lapse rate is:
(1) 6°C/km
(2) 9-8°C/km
(3) 8°C/km
(4) 7°C/km
32. Which among the following control devices are most efficient for the removal of particulate matter with size less than 1 µm?
(1) Fabric filtration
(3) Gravitational settling chamber
(4) Centrifugal collector
33. A primary clarifier has an average influent Total Suspended Solids (TSS) concentration of 250 mg/L. If its TSS removal efficiency is expected to be 60 percent, what is the expected average TSS concentration in the effluent?
(1) 100 mg/L
(2) 150 mg/L
(3) 50 mg/L
(4) 125 mg/L
34. During drinking water treatment process, the following chemical is added as a coagulant:
(1) Ferrous sulphate
(2) Ferric chloride
(3) Alum
(4) Polymer
35. If SPL of 10 dB is 10 times more intense than 1 dB, how much will be the intensity of 30 dB as compared to 1 dB?
(1) 30 times
(2) 100 times
(3) 300 times
(4) 1000 times
36. The sound level measured at a 4m distance from the centerline of a busy highway is 85 dB. What is the sound level at a distance of 12 m from the road centerline?
(1) 80 dB
(2) 120 dB
(3) 50 dB
(4) 72 dB
37. The dominant type of radiation emitted are in the following order
(1) X-ray, Beta, Alpha, Gamma
(2) Alpha, Beta, Gamma, X-ray
(3) Beta, Gamma, X-ray, Alpha
(4) Beta, X-ray, Alpha, Gamma
38. What are the radioactive elements found naturally on Earth?
(1) Radium and Thorium
(2) Radium and Polonium
(3) Uranium and Thorium
(4) Potassium and Thorium
39. Soils are classified according to the texture in the order of:
(1) Silt, Sand, Clay, Gravel
(2) Silt, Clay, Sand, Gravel
(3) Sand, Clay, Gravel, Silt
(4) Gravel, Sand, Silt, Clay
40. What are the primary sources of marine pollution?
(1) Deforestation and soil erosion
(2) Agricultural runoff and sewage discharge
(3) Solar radiation and atmospheric gases
(4) Volcanic activity and tectonic processes
41. Synthetic gaseous and liquid fuels produced from solid coal or sources other than natural gas or crude oil are known as:
(1) Biogas
(2) Biofuels
(3) Synfuels
(4) Liquid fuels
42. Which one of the following can be used to precipitate heavy metals?
(1) Sulphuric acid
(2) Lime
(3) Hydrochloric acid
(4) Acetic acid
43. Which toxic compound is not found in e-waste?
(1) Mercury
(2) Chromium
(3) Neon
(4) Lead
44. Which one of the following is not a universal waste?
(1) Pesticides
(2) Batteries
(3) Solvents used in degreasing
(4) Mercury containing equipment
45. The waste with high moisture content and greater proportion of organic biodegradable waste is more suitable for:
(1) Incineration
(2) Pyrolysis
(3) Biomethanation
(4) Gasification
46. Which of the following binding reagents is not used in solidification and stabilisation?
(1) Fly ash
(2) Portland cement
(3) CO2
(4) Gypsum
47. Clean bins or containers before they start overflowing and avoid multiple handling of wastes in transportation vehicles prior to final disposal are essential components of:
(1) Segregation of municipal solid wastes
(2) Storage of municipal solid wastes
(3) Transportation of municipal solid wastes
(4) Processing of municipal solid wastes
48. Industries generating hazardous waste are classified as:
(1) Brown
(2) Green
(3) Yellow
(4) Red
49. Which of the following substances is generally not considered toxic?
(1) Benzene
(2) Carbonic acid
(3) Ethylene
(4) Carbon monoxide
50. When the smaller animals are intoxicated by ingesting plastic, they are passed on to the larger animals disrupting the interrelated connections within the food chain and further the process goes on to higher level in the food chain. This is called:
(1) Pollution
(2) Biomagnification
(3) Bioconversion
(4) Toxicant
51. Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below:
List I
a. Category A
b. Category B
c. Category B1
d. Category B2
---------------------
List II
i. Screening required. Will be divided into two categories
ii. Screening indicates requirement of EIA
iii. Screening indicates no requirement of EIA
iv. EIA required. No screening required
Codes:
(1) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i
(2) a-iv, b-iii, e-i, d-ii
(3) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
(4) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
52. Which of the following best describes the function of Environmental Management Plan as part of the EIA report / ES?
(1) It describes the baseline environmental impacts.
(2) It describes the environmental impacts of the proposal.
(3) It describes the actions and auditing procedures required.
(4) It describes the project proposal in detail.
53. "Cradle to Grave" approach was introduced in which analysis?
(1) Cost-benefit analysis
(2) Life cycle analysis
(3) Environmental impact analysis
(4) Environmental management plan
54. Risk characterization provides information to:
(1) Exclude uncertainty from risk assessment.
(2) Conduct hazard identification.
(3) Set regulatory standards.
(4) Select perfect risk management options.
55. What is the role of Access and Benefit-Sharing Clearing-House (ABSCH) under the Nagoya Protocol?
(1) It monitors illegal trade of genetic resources.
(2) It promotes unrestricted access to genetic resources.
(3) It provides a platform for sharing research findings.
(4) It facilitates the exchange information related to access and benefit sharing.
56. What is the colour code for biomedical waste containers used for disposing of human anatomical wastes, such as body parts and tissues?
(1) Black
(2) Blue
(3) Red
(4) Yellow
57. How often does the Conference of the Contracting Parties (COP) to the Ramsar Convention meet ?
(1) Every year
(2) Every three years
(3) Every four years
(4) Every five years
58. What type of activities are allowed in CRZ-1 areas?
(1) All type of construction and development
(2) Industrial activities
(3) Activities related to traditional fishing communities and local population improvement
(4) Tourism related activities
59. Which set of goals succeeded the Millenium Development Goals in 2015?
(1) Global Economic Development Goals
(2) Global Environmental Goals
(3) Universal Human Rights
(4) Sustainable Development Goals
60. World Environment Day is celebrated every year on June 5th to remember the:
(1) First Earth Summit
(2) Second Earth Summit
(3) World Commission on Environment and Development
(4) Montreal Protocol
61. Which of the following is the most unstable average?
(1) Harmonic Mean
(2) Median
(3) Mode
(4) Geometric Mean
62. According to Yule and Kendall, average must possess the following features:
A. It should be capable of further algebraic treatment.
B. It should have sampling stability.
C. It should be based on all the items in the data.
D. It should not be unduly influenced by any single item or a group of items.
(1) A, B, C
(2) A, C, D
(3) B, C, D
(4) A, B, C, D
63. Quartile deviation is always a/an ________ measure of dispersion.
(1) Absolute
(2) Reciprocal
(3) Frequent
(4) Assumed
64. The first four central moments of a distribution are 0, 2.5, 0.7, and 18.75.
Calculate the 𝞫1 of the distribution.
(1) 3
(2) + 0.031
(3) 33
(4) + 0.31
65. r is _________ when the two regression lines coincide.
(1) 0.9
(2) 0.1
(3) < 1
(4) 1
66. Calculate correlation coefficient from the following data
b xy =0.72, b yx =0.78
(1) 0.06
(2) +0.06
(3) 0.749
(4) 0.923
67. The Lotka-Volterra model:
A. describes the interaction between a prey and a predator.
B. is based on matrix.
C. is based on differential equation.
D. is an example of Kolmogorov model.
(1) A, B, C
(2) A, B, D
(3) B, C, D
(4) A, B, C, D
68. Which of the following is/are not correct?
A. If there is no difference between the expected and observed frequencies, the X^2 is zero.
B. If the difference between expected and observed frequencies is not significant, then the hypothesis is accepted.
C. If the calculated X^2 value is higher than the expected frequency the difference is significant, then the hypothesis is accepted.
(1) C
(2) A, C
(3) B, C
(4) B
69. The merits of Arithmetic Mean are:
A. It is based on the value of every item in the series.
B. It gives greater importance to bigger items of a series and lesser importance to smaller items.
C. Its formula is rigidly defined. The mean is the same for the series, whosoever calculates it.
D. The mean is a more stable measure of central tendency.
(1) A, B, C
(2) A, C, D
(3) B, C, D
(4) A, B, C, D
70. Which one is best used to analyse the difference of means?
(1) t-test
(2) Kurtosis
(3) X^2 test
(4) Skewness
71. Which of the following can help in reducing biodiversity loss?
(1) Continued growth of urban area
(2) Introduction of invasive species
(3) Overexploitation of resources
(4) Implementing sustainable land use policy
72. Which of the following global environmental issues is caused by melting of ice sheets?
(1) Air pollution
(2) Sea level rise
(3) Ocean acidification
(4) Soil erosion
73. _________ is an effect of sea level rise.
(1) Decreased coastal erosion
(2) Infusion of salt water into coastal aquifers
(3) Extension of coastal habitats
(4) Increased availability of fresh water
74. The Ramsar Convention is focused on the conservation of _________
(1) Industries
(2) Forests
(3) Mountains
(4) Wetlands
75. In which year was the National Action Plan on Climate Change launched ?
(1) 2006
(2) 2008
(3) 2010
(4) 2014
76. Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below:
a. Chilika
b. Vembanad
c. Kolleru
d. Tawa
--------------
i. Kerala
ii. Madhya Pradesh
iii. Odisha
iv. Andhra Pradesh
Codes:
(1) a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i
(2) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
(3) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
(4) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv
77. Where did the Silent Valley Movement take place?
(1) Himalayan Forest
(2) Sundarban Forest
(3) North Eastern States
(4) Western Ghats
78. The movement initiated by Sunderlal Bahuguna is _________
(1) Chipko Movement
(2) Silent Valley Movement
(3) Sunderban Movement
(4) Appiko Movement
79. Which one of the following is the key threat to achieve the aims of Project Tiger?
(1) Deforestation for plantations
(2) Contaminated water bodies
(3) Afforestation
(4) Poaching
80. India's first Green building CII-Godrej Green Business Centre is located at:
(1) Chennai
(2) Hyderabad
(3) New Delhi
(4) Mumbai
81. Which of the following boundary exists between 40 and 50 kilometres above the Earth's surface?
(1) Tropopause
(2) Stratopause
(3) Stratosphere
(4) Mesopause
82. The phenomena of decline in temperature with increasing altitude is referred to as:
(1) Temperature reduction rate
(2) Environmental weather rate
(3) Environmental lapse rate
(4) Environmental temperature change
83. The mass of water vapour in a given volume of air is:
(1) Absolute humidity
(2) Relative humidity
(3) Mixing ratio
(4) Vapour pressure
84. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): A considerable amount of water is retained in the soil due to capillary action.
Reason (R): Water is characterized by the highest surface tension among all other liquids.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct reason of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are not true.
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
85. Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below :
List-I (SDG No.)
a. SDG 5
b. SDG 6
c. SDG 13
d. SDG 14
e. SDG 15
-----------------
List-II (SDG)
i. Life below water
ii. Climate Action
iii. Life on Land
iv. Clean Water and Sanitation
V. Gender equality
Codes:
(1) a-v, b-iv, c-i, d-ii, e-iii
(2) a-v, b-iv, c-iii, d-i, e-ii
(3) a-v, b-iv, c-ii, d-i, e-iii
(4) a-iv, b-v, c-ii, d-i, e-iii
86. The rate of cooling of vertically moving unsaturated air is ___________
(1) 1༠ C / 1000 metres
(2) 5༠ C / 1000 metres
(3) 10༠ C / 1000 metres
(4) 20༠ C / 1000 metres
87. Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below :
List-I (Biogeographic Zone)
a. Trans-Himalaya
b. Semi-Arid
c. Desert
d. Indo-Gangetic Plain
e. Coast
----------------------
List-II (Distribution)
i. Rajasthan
ii. Jammu and Kashmir, Ladakh
iii. North Gujarat, Rajasthan
iv. Bihar, West Bengal
V. Tamil Nadu, Maharashtra
Codes:
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-v, e-iv
(2) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i, e-v
(3) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv, e-v
(4) a-v, b-iv, c-i, d-ii, e-iii
88. Energy possessed by the molecules by virtue of their motion is called ________
(1) Activated energy
(2) Kinetic energy
(3) Static energy
(4) Internal energy
89. The Satellite data for the Indian Subcontinent is available for the user through ________ portal maintained by NRSC.
(1) GAGAN
(2) Bhuvan
(3) IIRS
(4) ISRO
90. The environmental applications of RS and GIS like climate change assessment and Land Use and Land cover changes can be assessed through _______ data.
(1) NDVI
(2) NDBI
(3) NDWI
(4) NDQI
91. The solubility of CO2 in a solution is 0-003 M at 2 atm pressure. What will be the solubility of CO2 at 6 atm pressure provided the temperature remains constant ?
(1) 0.009 M
(2) 0.5 M
(3) 0.006 M
(4) 0.01 M
92. Photochemical smog was first observed in:
(1) London
(2) Los Angeles
(3) Paris
(4) Tokyo
93. The basic principle governing Spectrophotometry is _______
(1) Snell's law of reflection
(2) Huygens' principle of refraction
(3) Beer-Lambert's law
(4) Fermat's principle
94. If 0.05 Molar Proline-Ninhydrin complex solution has a molecular absorbance of 0.15 at 520 nm wavelength in a 1 cm cuvette, calculate the molar extinction coefficient (c).
95. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Radon is an inert gas and is radioactive.
Reason (R): All inert gases are radioactive.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
96. Dioxins and Furans are two toxic gaseous pollutants which are measured by the instrument:
(1) GC-MS
(2) TLC
(3) ICP-AAS
(4) AAS
97. Greenhouse gases can absorb radiations of wavelength:
(1) < 0.3 µm
(2) > 2-3 µm
(3) > 4 µm
(4) < 4 µm
98. Solubility (S) of a sparingly soluble salt of type AB is related to the solubility product (Ksp) as:
99. Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is always less than:
(1) Dissolved Oxygen (DO)
(2) Maximum Probable Number (MPN)
(3) Chemical Oxygen Demand (COD)
(4) Standard Plate Count (SPC)
100. High exposure to Cd, Hg, and Pb will cause severe harm to the _______ of human beings.
(1) Lungs
(2) Liver
(3) Kidneys
(4) Neutrons
Official Answer Key ...
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