1. The half-life of radiocarbon (14C) is:
(1) 6,730 years
(2) 5,730 years
(3) 57,300 years
(4) 5,370 years
2. Which of the following is NOT a trace fossil?
(3) Dinosaur eggs
(4) Wood fossil
3. Match the following and select the correct answer
a) Cambrian
b) Devonian
c) Jurassic
d) Cretaceous
-------------------
Associated Fossils
i) Ammonites
ii) Dinosaur
iii) Trilobite
iv) Fishes
(1) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
(2) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
(3) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
(4) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
4. The Miller-Urey experiment on Abiogenesis was proposed by
(2) Charles Urey & George Harward
(3) George Cavendish & Miller
(4) Stanely.M & George Cavendish
5. The name of John Henry Pratt is closely related to the theory of
(1) Isostasy
(2) Plate tectonics
(3) Magnetic field
(4) Origin of life
6. Examine Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and select the correct answer
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the plausible explanation
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation
(3) (A) is true but (R) is False
(4) (A) is False but (R) is true
7. Which among the following is a Uranium Mine of India?
(1) Malanjkhand
(2) Khetri
(3) Thinthini
(4) Jaduguda
8. Pedogenesis is the study of -----------
(1) Origin of Formation of Soil
(4) Fumeroles
9. The system in which the mineral "Aragonite" crystallises is:
(1) Isometric
(2) Hexagonal
(3) Orthorhombic
(4) Monoclinic
10. The most abundant rocks found in Maharashtra are
(1) Granites
(2) Basalts
(3) Dolerites
(4) Diorites
11. Match the following and select the correct option:
Earth's Layer
a) Core
d) Mantle
-----------------
Broad Composition
i) Si-Mg
ii) Fe - Ni
iii) Si - Al
iv) Fe - Mg
(1) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
(2) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(3) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(4) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv
12. Beneath the ocean floor the MOHO lies at the depth of
(1) 2-3 Km
(2) 5-10 Km
(3) 18-20 Km
(4) 20-25 Km
13. The mineral whose orientation is considered in the palaeomagnetic studies is
(1) Hematite
(2) Magnetite
(3) Chromite
(4) Pyrite
14. Joints that break rock into generally hexagonal columns are called as
(1) Cross joints
(2) Master joints
(3) Cross-strike joints
(4) Columnar joints
15. Sea mounts are formed by
(1) Extinct Volcanoes
(2) Ocean Floor Subsidence
(3) Transform Faulting
(4) Lava-sediment interaction
16. In modern oceans, the removal of dissolved silica is principally carried out by
(1) Diatoms
(2) Radiolaria
(4) Sponges
17. Which Ocean is having the highest red clay deposits in oceans floor?
(1) Arctic Ocean
(2) Pacific Ocean
(3) Atlantic Ocean
(4) Indian Ocean
18. The Calcite Compensation Depth (CCD) in Indian Ocean is
(1) > 6000m
(2) < 3000m
(3) 4000-5000m
(4) 5000-6000m
19. The sequence of atmospheric layers above the Earth's surface is
(1) Troposphere - Stratosphere - Mesosphere - Thermosphere
(2) Stratosphere - Mesosphere - Thermosphere - Troposphere
(3) Thermosphere - Mesosphere - Troposphere - Stratosphere
(4) Troposphere - Thermosphere - Mesosphere - Stratosphere
20. Among the proportion of sediment types covering the deep sea floor, calcareous oozes represent % in the Indian Ocean.
(1) 54%
(2) 44%
(3) 34%
(4) 64%
21. In India, mud volcanoes are witnessed in
(1) Lakshadweep
(4) Sunderbans
22. The most widely used antenna in GPS is
(1) Parabolic antenna
(2) Microstrip antenna
(3) Horn antenna
(4) Slotted antenna
23. Match the following and choose the correct answer
Processes
a) Extraterrestrial
b) Hydrological
c) Geological
d) Meteorological
--------------
Hazards
i) Tornadoes
ii) Landslides
iii) Floods
iv) Asteroids impact
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(2) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
(3) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(4) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv
24. Which of the following is considered as the secondary pollutant?
(1) Ozone
(2) Benzene
(3) Sulphur dioxide
(4) Carbon monoxide
25. Exploitation of minerals by open-cast mining is more hazardous than underground mining chiefly due to
(1) Depletion of mineral reserves
(2) Depletion of water resources
(3) Dust pollution
(4) Soil erosion
26. Which of the following mineral association represents the transition between diagenesis and regional metamorphism?
(1) Prehnite - Pumpellyite
(2) Chlorite Actinolite - Albite
(3) Hornblende Plagioclase - Quartz
(4) Hornblende - Augite - Plagioclase
27. Which of the following rocks are completely unfoliated?
(1) Gneiss
(2) Schists
(3) Phyllites
(4) Hornfels
28. Metamorphism with combined impact of uniform pressure and heat is described as
(1) Plutonic Metamorphism
(2) Dynamo-Thermal Metamorphism
(3) Cataclastic Metamorphism
(4) Contact Metamorphism
29. Match the following and choose the correct answer
List-l
a) Eclogite
b) Granulite
c) Amphibolite
d) Marble
--------------
List-II
i) Calcite-Dolomite
ii) Garnet-Omphacite
iii) Opx-Cpx-Plagioclase
iv) Hornblend-Plagioclase
(1) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i
(2) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
(3) a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i
(4) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
30. Choose the correct sequence in increasing grade of Metamorphism.
(1) Slate - Shale - Phyllite - Schist - Gneiss
(2) Phyllite - Shale - Schist - Gneiss - Slate
(3) Shale - Slate - Phyllite - Schist - Gneiss
(4) Schist - Phyllite - Slate - Gneiss - Shale
31. The characteristic mineral present in Charnockite is
(1) Diopside
(2) Augite
(3) Hypersthene
(4) Pigeonite
32. The vertical angle between the horizontal plane and the axis of the fold is termed as
(1) Plunge
(2) Buckling
(3) Pitch
(4) Monocline
33. Continuous Cleavage with a distinctive silky lusture in low-grade metamorphic rock is
(1) Schistosity
(2) Gneissosity
(3) Disjunctive cleavage
(4) Phyllitic cleavage
34. Examine carefully Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and choose the correct Answer
Assertion (A): When a rock is subjected to increasing stress, it passes through elastic deformation in the initial stage.
Reason (R): During elastic deformation the strain is reversible.
(1) Both (A) & (R) are false
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not the correct explanation
(3) Both (A) & (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
35. Two sets of joints that are at right angles to one another is known as
(1) Sheet Joints
(2) Mirror Joints
(3) Orthogonal system of Joints
(4) Strike Joints
36. It is called true dip when the angular relationship between dip and strike of a bed is at
(1) 90 deg
(2) 60 deg
(3) 45 deg
(4) 22 deg
37. Tablet shaped lenses of a relatively rigid lithology embedded in a weaker matrix, that have collectively undergone layer parallel stretching are called as
(1) Augen
(2) Boudins
(3) Necking
(4) Millions
38. Single toed Pliohippus fossil occur in ----------- period
(1) Early to middle Pliocene
(2) Eocene - Paleocene
(3) Paleocene - Cretaceous
(4) Permian - Triassic
39. Axial lobe of a Trilobite lies between
(1) Plural lobes
(2) Glabellar lobes
(3) Free cheek and fixed cheek
(4) Pygidial spine and Pleural spine
40. The Dinosaurs appeared first in ---------- and became extinct during ----------
(1) Early Triassic and Late Cretaceous
(2) Early Jurassic and Early Cretaceous
(3) Late Triassic and Early Cretaceous
(4) Middle Triassic and Middle Cretaceous
41. Thalassinoides are
(1) Ichnofossils
(2) Body fossils
(3) Living fossils
(4) Derived fossils
42. The Gastropod having spines and exhibiting dextral coiling is
(1) Physa
(2) Turritella
(3) Volute
(4) Murex
43. Conodonts are ---------- micro fossils
(1) Calcareous
(2) Phosphatic
(3) Siliceous
(4) Organic
44. Flame structures are
(1) Ball and Pillow like structures
(2) Slump structured found in wet sediments
(3) Fingers of mud that protrude into the overlying sediments
(4) Planar structures found in grits
45. If a Mineralogical association of a sedimentary rock shows Quartz 36%, feldspar 41%, matrix 4%, rock fragments 19%, then it can be called as
(1) Grit
(2) Lithic Arkose
(3) Siliceous Limestone
(4) Feldspathic Wacke
46. A Sediment having excess fine material exhibits -----------
(1) Negative Skewness
(2) Positive Skewness
(3) No Skewness
(4) Random Skewness
47. Sequence Stratigraphy deals with
(1) Faulting mechanism
(2) Folded rocks
(3) Lithification and Diagenesis
(4) Chronostratigraphy and facies
48. Lameta beds occurring below the traps in Rajamundry area are called
(1) Intertrappean beds
(2) Intratrappean beds
(3) Infratrappean beds
(4) Supratrappean beds
49. Match the following and choose the correct answer
List-l
a) Upper Siwaliks
b) Middle Siwaliks
c) Lower Siwaliks
------------
List-II
i) Fluviatile Environment
ii) Marshy Environment
iii) Lacustrine Environment
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii
(2) a-iii, b-ii, c-i
(3) a-ii, b - i c-iii
(4) a-ii, b-iii, c - i
50. What is the approximate collective length of mid-ocean edges?
(1) 80,000 km
(2) 10,000 km
(3) 20,000 km
(4) 30,000 km
51. What is the significance of the drill cores taken from the seafloor by the research drilling vessel Challenger Expedition in 1968?
(1) Confirmed seafloor spreading & plate tectonics
(2) Confirmed hot springs in Pacific Ocean
(3) Discovered Polymetallic nodules
(4) Discovered mantle plumes in Indian Ocean
52. Many Countries have their own navigation System and the Satellite based navigation system of Russia is known as ----------
(1) Compass
(2) QZSS
(3) Galileo
(4) GLONASS
53. India's Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) has an area of --------
(1) 55,450 sq km
(2) 50,450 sq km
(3) 1,305,143 sq km
(4) 2,305,143 sq km
54. The concentration of CO2 in Earth atmosphere is Currently at nearly 412 ppm. What is the CO2 Concentration in atmosphere during the Last Glacial Maximum (LGM)?
(1) 80 ppm
(2) 180 ppm
(3) 280 ppm
(4) 380 ppm
55. Surface water of the Bay of Bengal is less saline compared to the surface water of the Arabian Sea because of -----------
(1) More freshwater discharge
(2) Higher evaporation over precipitation
(3) More rain over Arabian Sea
(4) Less evaporation at Arabian Sea
56. What is the smallest unit of element that retains its chemical properties?
(1) Proton
(2) Atom
(3) Molecule
(4) Electron
57. In which region of the periodic table are the alkali metals found?
(1) Group 1
(2) Group 2
(3) Group 17
(4) Group 18
58. lonic substitution in minerals refers to the replacement of one ion by another in the crystal lattice. Which factor mainly governs this substitution?
(1) Atomic radius
(2) Atomic mass
(3) lonization energy
(4) Electronegativity
59. What is the basic concept of Phase Rule?
(1) To predict mineral reactions
(2) To calculate mineral hardness
(3) To determine mineral composition
(4) To predict the numbered phases in a system
60. Match the following and select the correct answer:
List-l
a) Lithophile
b) Atmophile
c) Chalcophile
d) Siderophile
-----------------
List-II
i. Low affinity for oxygen but bond with sulphur
ii. Elements preferentially partitioned into iron and Ferroalloys
iii. Elements that are preferentially concentrated as volatiles
iv. Preferentially partitioned into silicate minerals
Codes:
(1)a-iv, b-iii, c - i, d-ii
(2) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
(3) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv
(4) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
61. The longest half-life is observed in which of the following decay systems?
(1) Rb-Sr
(2) K-Ar
(3) 14C
(4) 7H
62. The Deogiri is known for mining of:
(1) Manganese
(2) Copper
(3) Silver
(4) Gold
63. Match the following and choose the correct answer:
Ores
a) Vein-type gold
b) Chromite
c) Coal
d) Hematite
----------------
Mode of occurrence
i. Banded deposit
ii. Fracture-controlled
iii. Orthomagmatic
iv. Bedded
(1) a - i b-ii, c-iv, d-iii
(2) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
(3) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
(4) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv
64. The chief source of manganese mineral is
(1) Carbonates
(2) Silicates
(3) Sulphides
(4) Oxides
65. Cumulus texture is normally known in which of the following minerals?
(1) Galena
(2) Bauxite
(3) Pyrolusite
(4) Chromite
66 . Gas hydrates are found in:
(1) Hydrothermal deposits
(2) Beneath the ocean floor
(3) In the gas pools
(4) Fumeroles
67. Sitapundi Complex is famous for
(1) Anorthosites
(2) Magnesites
(3) Granite
(4) Charnockites
68. Which of the following is NOT a component of the Earth's cryosphere?
(1) Polar Ice caар
(2) Glaciers
(3) Permafrost
(4) Ocean currents
69. Choose the correct answer from the following statements:
a) Dharwan Craton chiefly consists of granite - greenstones
b) Grade of metamorphism in Dharwar Craton increases from North to South
c) Grade of metamorphism in Dharwar Craton increases from South to North
d) Chief lithological components of Dharwar Craton are limestones and dolerites
(1) a and b are correct
(2) a and c are correct
(3) b and d are correct
(4) a is correct and b is incorrect
70. What is the main characteristic of a cratonic nucleus in geology?
(1) High volcanic activity
(2) Thick Sedimentary rock layer
(3) Stable continental crust
(4) Frequent Earthquakes
71. Which geological belt is characterised by high-grade metamorphism?
(1) Chitradurga Schist Belt
(2) Hutti-Maski Schist Belt
(3) Sargur Schist Belt
(4) Sandur Schist Belt
72. What do geologists use to determine the age of rocks and geological events?
(1) Radiocarbon dating
(2) Fossil evidence
(3) Geochronology
(4) Lithological Contacts
73. What is the Primary source of information regarding life in the Precambrian era?
(1) Fossils of complex organism
(2) Fossils of single-celled organisms
(3) Hiatus in stratigraphic record
(4) Presence of plant fossils
74. Periods episodes of rapid ice-rafted debris deposition as a result of the massive discharge of Icebergs is known as -------
(1) Younger dryas
(2) Heinrich Events
(3) Bolling Allenod
(4) Little Ice Age
75. The number of Quaternary interglacial-glacial cycles is approximately in the order of -------------
(1) 30-50
(2) 5-10
(3) 2-5
(4) 60-80
76. What is the age of the uppermost unit of the Youngest Toba Tuff (YTT) eruption?
(1) 800 ka
(2) 80 ka
(3) 740 ka
(4) 74 ka
77. I lived in the last Ice. Age. I am a herbivore. I am a Siberian.
Who am I?
(1) Giant Sloth
(2) Woolly Mammoth
(3) Mastodon
(4) Sober tooth tiger
78. Age of Fossil is determined as 17, 190 years old. What is the remaining % of C-14 in that fossil?
(1) 12.5%
(2) 25.0%
(3) 50.0%
(4) 75.0%
79. How many times Dansgaard - Oeschger (D-O) events are reported during the last glacial period?
(1) 41 events
(2) 12 events
(3) 104 events
(4) 25 events
80. Which of the following is NOT a method of sub-surface exploration in mineral exploration?
(1) Drilling
(2) Seismic survey
(3) Channel sampling
(4) Ground-Penetrating Radar (GPR)
81. In remote sensing what does GIS stand for?
(1) Geological Imaging System
(2) Geographic Information System
(3) Geographic Intelligence System
(4) Global Imaging System
82. In Engineering Geology, what does seismic design of building involve?
(1) Designing buildings to withstand Earthquakes
(2) Designing buildings with optimal acoustic properties
(3) Designing buildings to resist Hurricane winds
(4) Designing buildings for energy efficiency
83. What does "Assaying" refer to in the mineral exploration?
(1) Examining the physical properties of minerals
(2) Determining the mineral's age
(3) Analysing the concentration of metal in the ore
(4) Measuring mineral hardness
84. Match the following and choose the correct answer
Properties
a) Fresh water
b) Saline water
c) Brackish water
d) Brines
-----------
TDS
i) 1000-10,000 ppm
ii) >35,000 ppm
iii) <1000 ppm
iv) 10,000-35,000 ppm
(1) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
(2) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv
(3) a-i, b-iv, c-ii, d-iii
(4) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv
85. Which of the following has the highest wind velocity?
(1) Typhoon
(2) Hurricane
(3) Cyclone
(4) Tornado
86. Potholes/ Plunge holes are formed by
(1) Abrasion
(2) Hydraulic action
(3) Attrition
(4) Solution
87. The Coalescence of alluvial fans results in
(1) Panplain
(2) Bajada
(3) Pediment
(4) Pediplain
88. Match the following and choose the correct answer:
Events
a) Cyclones
b) Draughts
c) Landslides
d) Pollution
--------------
Causative factors
i) Ground instability
ii) Anthropogenic
iii) Climatological
iv) Variation in wind pressure
(1) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d - i
(2) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
(3) a-iv, b-iii, c - i d-ii
(4) a-iii, b-iv, c - i d-ii
89. The 'geoid' is a reference surface used in geophysics to
(1) Represent the shape of the Earth's crust
(2) Define the magnetic pole locations
(3) Provide a reference for measuring elevation and Earth's shape
(4) Determine the locations of seismic events
90. What is the primary purpose of numerical differentiation in Geophysics?
(1) Analysing seismic move forms
(2) Evaluating geological cross-sections
(3) Approximating derivatives of data
(4) Solving algebraic equations
91. What is the primary function of Fourier transformation in signal processing?
(1) Filtering noise
(2) Sampling data
(3) Decomposing signals into their frequency components
(4) Measuring signal power
92. Match the following and choose the correct answer
Seismic Waves
a) P- Waves
b) S- Waves
c) Rayleigh Waves
d) Love Waves
-------------------
Characteristics
i) Surface wave that travels as ripples
ii) Waves that cause horizontal shearing of the ground
iii) Compressional Waves
iv) Transverse Waves
Codes:
(1) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
(2) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
(3) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
(4) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
93. The position of the Intertropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) varies seasonally because it follows the Sun; It moves north during the Northern Hemisphere Summer and South during the Northern Hemisphere Winter. As a result, the ITCZ is responsible for the --------
(1) Wet & dry season in Australia
(2) Precipitation at the poles
(3) Wet & dry season in the Tropics
(4) Wet & dry season in the Arctic
94. According to Koppen's type 'A' Climate Classification "Aw" is ------
(1) Tropical Desert Climate
(2) Tropical Savanna Climate
(3) Tropical Steppe Climate
(4) Tropical dry Summer Climate
95. The quantity of water in a particular volume of air is referred to as ------
(1) Thermal Humidity
(2) Quantum Humidity
(3) Absolute Humidity
(4) Relative Humidity
96. Modern concentration of atmospheric CO2 is ----------
(1) 200 ppm
(2) 300 ppm
(3) 420 ppm
(4) 500 ppm
97. New sea floor is created at
(1) Deep sea trench
(2) Mid-oceanic trench
(3) Subduction zone
(4) Transform fault
98. A periodic change towards unusual colder side is called
(1) La Nina
(2) El Nino
(3) Upwelling
(4) Downwelling
99. Ocean currents that move towards the poles are
(1) Warm
(2) Cold
(3) Warm in Northern hemisphere and cold in Southern hemisphere
(4) Cold in Northern hemisphere and warm in Southern hemisphere
100. As deep ocean water becomes colder it also becomes
(1) Saltier
(2) Denser
(3) Clearer
(4) Lighter
Official Answer Key :
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