KSET solved question papers, KSET result, KSET exam date, KSET application, KSET hall ticket
Ad
_
1. Given below are two statements, Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Monoamines are small molecule neurotransmitters.
Reason (R): Each is synthesized from a single amino acid hence the name monoamine or one amine.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
2. Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below :
List I
c. PET
d. fMRI
---------------
List II
i. Construction of brain image by combining separate X' rays
ii. Bold signals of neural activity
iii. Diagnoses or confirms abnormalities in the blood vessels
iv. Injection of radioactive water to find out more active regions of the brain
Codes:
(1) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
(2) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(3) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii
(4) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
3. Match the parts of the brain and its functions.
List I (Parts of Brain)
a. Medulla
b. Pons
c. Cerebellum
----------------
List II (Functions)
i. Maintains breathing and heartbeat
ii. Controls bodily balance
iii. Activates the brain to produce arousal
iv. Coordinates and integrates muscle movements
Codes:
(1) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv
(2) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii
(3) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
(4) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
4. The unconventional neurotransmitter is:
(1) dopamine
(3) serotonin
(2) epinephrine
(4) soluble gas neurotransmitter
5. Neurotransplants favourable effects in the MPTP monkey triggered a large scale double-blind evaluation study in patients suffering from advanced :
(4) Vascular dementia
6. The striatum based form of learning is referred to as:
(1) Habit abolish
(2) Habit dissolve
(3) Habit formation
(4) Habit stoppage
7. Nootropics is otherwise known as:
(1) Solid drugs
(2) Slow drugs
(3) Smart drugs
(4) Unclever drugs
8. Steroid hormones are synthesized form of:
(1) Cholesterol
(2) Epinephrine
(3) Peptides
(4) Tyrosine
9. Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below :
List I
a. Androgens
b. Estrogens
c. Progestins
d. Tropic hormones
------------------
List II
i. Gonadotropin
ii. Progesterone
iii. Estradiol
iv. Testosterone
Codes:
(1) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
(2) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i
(3) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(4) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
10. Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below :
List I
a. Gonadectomy
b. SRG gene
c. Müllerian system
d. Wolffian system
-----------------------------
List II
i. Development of sex organs
ii. Development of fallopian tubes
iii. Surgical removal of ovaries or testes
iv. Development of seminal vesicles
Codes:
(1) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv
(2) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
(3) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
(4) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
11. Match the learning processes from List I with the theorists in List II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below :
List I
-----------------------------
List II
i. Groves and Thompson
ii. Ivan Pavlov
iii. Albert Bandura
iv. Skinner
Codes:
(1) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
(2) a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i
(3) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii
(4) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
12. Which among the following stimulus is reflexive by nature?
(1) Unconditioned stimulus
(2) Conditioned stimulus
(3) Neutral stimulus
(4) Non-aversive stimulus
13. In which of the following pairing does the conditioned stimulus (CS) appear first and is still present when the unconditioned stimulus (UCS) appears?
(1) Forward pairing
(2) Simultaneous paring
(3) Backward pairing
(4) Forward trace pairing
14. Political candidates try to get voters to like them by associating themselves with patriotic symbols, famous celebrities and other conditioned stimuli that already trigger positive emotional reactions. This type of conditioning is called:
(1) Forward conditioning
(2) Backward conditioning
(3) Lower-order conditioning
15. Response cost is an example of:
(1) Positive reinforcement
(2) Negative reinforcement
(3) Positive punishment
(4) Negative punishment
16. Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below :
List I
a. Positive reinforcement
b. Negative reinforcement
c. Positive punishment
d. Negative punishment
---------------------
List II
i. Electric shock
ii. Reward
iii. Response cost
iv. Hit off the alarm
Codes:
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(2) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii
(3) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
(4) a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i
17. The reinforcement schedule where a certain amount of time must elapse between reinforcements, yet the interval varies at random around an average is :
(1) Fixed ratio schedule
(2) Variable ratio schedule
(3) Fixed interval schedule
(4) Variable interval schedule
18. The sudden perception of a useful relationship that helps to solve a problem is called :
(1) Instinct
(2) Intuition
(3) Insight
(4) Innate
19. Identify the correct sequence of the four-step process of modelling proposed by Bandura.
(1) Attention → Motivation → Retention → Reproduction
(2) Motivation → Attention → Retention → Reproduction
(3) Attention → Retention → Reproduction → Motivation
(4) Motivation → Attention → Reproduction → Retention
20. People's belief that they have the capability to perform behaviours that will produce a desired outcome is called:
(1) Self-esteem
(2) Self-efficacy
(3) Self-concept
(4) Self-motivation
21. Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below :
List I (Category)
a. Mild
b. Moderate
c. Severe
d. Profound
------------------
List II (IQ level)
i. 10-20
ii. 60-70
iii. 25-33
iv. 35-50
Codes:
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(2) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i
(3) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
(4) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
22. In making decisions, the utility of a particular outcome, weighed by the likelihood of that outcomes occurrence is called:
(1) Expected utility
(2) Subjective utility
(3) Utility curve
(4) Marginal utility
23. In making judgements, the choice of certainty over ambiguity even when the result is an inconsistent pattern of choice, is termed as:
(1) Description invariance
(2) Allais paradox
(3) Simpson's paradox
(4) Ellsberg paradox
24. The Tower of Hanoi task is an example of:
(1) Creativity
(2) Decision-making
(3) Problem solving
(4) Attention
25. A heuristic, where the problem solver arbitrarily picks a move and tests to see whether the goal state is reached :
(1) Random search
(2) Hill climbing
(3) Means-ends analysis
(4) Ends-means analysis
26. The sequence of analogical reasoning is:
(i) Mapping
(ii) Abstraction
(iii) Retrieval
(iv) Evaluation
Choose the correct answer:
(1) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)
(2) (ii), (iv), (iii), (i)
(3) (iii), (i), (iv), (ii)
(4) (iv), (ii), (i), (iii)
27. A disruption in language or speech caused due to brain damage is called:
(1) Anoxia
(2) Aphasia
(3) Anomia
(4) Apraxia
28. Using a hardbound book to hammer a nail is an instance that you are able to overcome
(1) Mental set
(2) Burn out
(3) Lack of motivation
29. Which among the following is termed by Bruner as "effective surprise"?
(1) Problem solving
(2) Creative thinking
(3) Decision-making
(4) Syllogistic reasoning
30. Match the following abilities of divergent thinking with their meanings and then choose the correct codes given below :
List I (Ability)
a. Fluency
b. Flexibility
c. Originality
d. Elaboration
---------------------
List II (Meaning)
i. To produce rare or unusual ideas
ii. To go into details and work out connections of new ideas
iii. To produce as many ideas for a given problem
iv. To think of different ways of solving a problem
Codes:
(1) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
(2) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
(3) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i
(4) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii
31. The crises associated with young childhood according to Erikson's stages of development is -----------
(1) Guilt vs. Initiative
(2) Inferiority vs. Industry
(3) Shame and doubt vs. Autonomy
(4) Role confusion vs. Identity
32. The fear that maximizing our potential will lead to a situation with which we will be unable to cope was referred by Maslow as --------------
(1) Fear of failure
(2) Jonah complex
(3) Inferiority complex
(4) Martyr complex
33. A person who narrates his happy moments in life can create a happy environment. This is an:
(1) Internal locus of control
(2) Instrumental purpose
(3) Existential tradition
(4) Optimistic explanatory style
34. Identify the group of Neo-Freudians from the options given below :
(1) Horney, Adler, Allport, Erikson
(2) Adler, Erikson, Horney, Cattell
(3) Horney, Adler, Erikson, Jung
(4) Erikson, Horney, Adler, Bandura
35. The instinct theory of motivation is associated with -------------
(1) Williamson
(2) Sigmund Freud
(3) William McDougall
(4) Konrad Lorenz
36. Carefully examine the following statements and choose the correct options.
Assertion (A): Self-regulation theory posits that individuals can control their thoughts, emotions and behaviours to achieve their personal goals.
Reason (R): This control is achieved through self-monitoring goal setting and employing strategies to manage internal and external demands leading to improved performance and personal development.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
37. Examine Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and select the correct option.
Assertion (A): Increased activation of brain cells in the cerebellum is associated with enhanced motor co-ordination and learning.
Reason (R): The cerebellum plays a crucial role in the fine tuning of motor movements, balance and posture like integrating sensory inputs and coordinating voluntary movements.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(1) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(2) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
38. Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below:
List I
a. James-Lange
b. Cannon-Bard
c. Schachter and Singer
d. Lazarus
-------------------------
List II
i. Brain controls emotional expression
ii. Emotions are resultant of cognitive evaluation
iii. Physiological arousal instigates expression emotional
iv. Environmental cues are used to identify one's emotions
Codes:
(1) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv
(2) a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii
(3) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i
(4) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
39. Arrange the six stages of moral development in sequential order as given by Lawrence Kohlberg:
(i) Self-interest
(ii) Authority and maintaining social order
(iii) Universal ethical principles
(iv) Obedience and punishment
(v) Social contract
(vi) Interpersonal accord and conformity
Choose the correct answer:
(1) (ii), (i), (vi), (v), (iii), (iv)
(2) (iii), (ii), (vi), (iv), (i), (v)
(3) (iv), (i), (vi), (ii), (v), (iii)
(4) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv), (v), (vi)
40. Which of the following is not true about biofeedback?
(1) Using feedback about biological conditions to turn voluntary responses to involuntary ones.
(2) Neurofeedback is a form of biofeedback.
(3) It is based on recordings of EMG, EDA, EEG, etc.
(4) It is a process based on operant conditioning.
41. Theoretical perspectives used in social psychology include:
(i) Field theory
(ii) Cognitive dissonance
(iii) Psychodynamic approach
Choose the correct answer:
(1) (i) and (iii) only
(2) (i) and (ii) only
(3) (ii) and (iii) only
(4) (i), (ii) and (iii)
42. Focus on understanding the cultural and ethnic factors that influence social behaviour is called:
(1) Multi-cultural perspective
(2) Cross-cultural psychology
(3) Anthropology
(4) Social psychology
43. Name the tendency for beliefs and schemas to remain unchanged even in the face of contradictory information.
(1) Attitude
(2) Perseverance effect
(3) Priming
(4) Prejudice
44. Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below :
List I
a. Compliance
b. Obedience
c. Reactance
d. Peer pressure
-------------------
List II
i. Motivational state that causes people to oppose
ii. Change in one's behaviour at the request of another person
iii. Can also lead to unsafe behaviour
iv. Changes in public behaviour but not one's beliefs
Codes:
(1) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv
(2) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
(3) a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii
(4) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i
45. The theory which describes how we use others' behaviour as a basis for inferring their stable dispositions is :
(1) Correspondent inference theory
(2) Causal attribution theory
(3) Fundamental attribution error
(4) Attribution theory
46. Match the social psychologist with the theory proposed.
List I (Social Psychologist)
a. Ajzen and Fishbein
b. Friedman and Rosenman
c. Bandura
d. Skinner
-----------------------
List II (Theory)
i. Type A Theory
ii. Social Learning Theory
iii. Theory of Behaviour
iv. Theory of Reasoned Action
Codes:
(1) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
(2) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
(3) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(4) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
47. Barriers based on attitudinal or organisational bias that prevent qualified females from advancing to top level positions is called:
(1) Glass cliff effect
(2) Gender discrimination
(3) Gender stereotyping
(4) Glass ceiling
48. A technique that uses priming to measure implicit racial attitude is:
(1) Collective guilt
(2) Moral disengagement
(3) Bonafide pipeline
49. Examine the Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and choose the correct answer.
Assertion (A): Aggression is the result of blocking or frustrating a person's efforts to attain or reach a goal.
Reason (R): The inability to achieve the desired goal creates emotional tension and psychological stress.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
50. Contributors to the development of applied social psychology include:
(i) Kurt Lewin
(ii) Floyd Allport
(iii) Wechsler
(iv) Hugo Munsterberg
Choose the correct answer:
(1) (i) and (ii) only
(2) (ii) and (iii) only
(3) (ii) and (iv) only
(4) (i), (ii) and (iv) only
51. The presence of therapist is essential for the client's progress in this therapy:
(1) Person-centered therapy
(2) Gestalt therapy
(3) Psychoanalytic therapy
(4) Positive Psychotherapy
52. Examine the Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and choose the correct answer.
Assertion (A): Individuals have the capacity to self-regulate when they are aware of the happenings around them.
Reason (R): Individuals will move towards increased awareness only if the therapist is able to stay with the clients' present experience.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
53. Examine the Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and choose the correct answer.
Assertion (A): Therapists pay attention to clients' body language.
Reason (R): Non-verbal cues provide rich information of which the clients are unaware.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
54. Study of Human Development seeks to:
(i) Describe the development
(ii) Explain the development
(iii) Predict the development
(iv) Modify the development
Choose the correct answer:
(1) (i) and (ii) only
(2) (iii) and (iv) only
(3) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(4) (i), (iii) and (iv) only
55. Developmental scientists study development under:
(i) Qualitative change
(ii) Quantitative change
(iii) Stability of personality
Choose the correct answer:
(1) (i) only
(2) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(3) (i) and (ii) only
(4) (i) and (iii) only
56. According to Victor Frankl, following are the various needs that are essential for meaning in life:
(i) Purpose
(ii) Value
(iii) Self-efficacy
(iv) Self-worth
Choose the correct answer:
(1) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
(2) (ii) and (iv) only
(3) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(4) (i), (iii) and (iv) only
57. Identify the categories of play according to the cognitive complexity:
(1) Social play, games with rules, functional play and constructive play
(2) Associative play, onlooker play, cooperative play and functional play
(3) Parallel play, independent play, unoccupied behaviour and organized play
(4) Functional play, constructive play, dramatic play and games with rules
58. Examine the Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and choose the correct answer.
Assertion (A): Learning disabilities interfere with specific aspects of learning and school achievement.
Reason (R): Mild to moderate retarded children can benefit from schooling.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
59. Cognitive therapy emphasizes on these qualities of a therapist :
(i) Therapist as a teacher
(ii) Combine empathy and sensitivity
(iii) Be creative and active
(iv) Collaborating all phases of therapy
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(1) Only (i)
(2) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(3) (i) and (iii)
(4) (i) and (iv)
60. Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below :
List I
a. Body ages as a result of accumulated damage to the i. system at molecular level
b. Highly reactive atoms or molecules during metabolism can cause internal bodily damage
c. The speed of metabolism determines the length of life
d. The aging immune system becomes confused and releases antibodies that attack the body's own cells
--------------------
List II
i. Autoimmune theory
ii. Rate-of-living theory
iii. Wear and tear theory
iv. Free-radical theory
Codes:
(1) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
(2) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
(3) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
(4) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
61. The first generation that was fully born into the 21st century is called :
(1) Generation X
(2) Generation Y
(3) Generation Z
(4) Generation Alpha
62. Which among the following psychological traits are often related to cyberbullying?
(i) Narcissism
(ii) Sadism
(iii) Obsessive compulsive behaviour
(iv) Neuroticism
Choose the correct answer:
(1) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(2) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(3) (i) and (ii) only
(4) (iii) and (iv) only
63. Using online technologies as a form of social protest to disrupt a website is called:
(1) Hactivism
(2) Ethical hacking
(3) Cyber bullying
(4) Cyber avatarism
64. FOMO refers to:
(1) Faith on Mobile Operations
(2) Fear of Missing Out
(3) Fear of Missing Online
(4) Fear of Mobile On
65. One of the drawbacks of virtual classroom includes:
(1) Economy of time, pace and distance
(2) Being away due to fear of criticism
(3) Inability to help in the development of wholesome personality
(4) Access to learn 24/7
66. When an individual's sex and gender roles do not correspond with each other, it is called:
(1) Homosexual type
(2) Intersex type
(3) Heterosexual type
(4) Cross-sex type
67. Carefully examine the following statements and select the correct answer.
Assertion (A): Cyber bullying is when someone does or says mean things to another person using a phone, computer or other electronic device.
Reason (R): A cyber bully can post mean messages or jokes about someone on the Internet or through text messages.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.
68. Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer using the code:
List I
a. Physical bullying
b. Verbal bullying
c. Social bullying
d. Cyber bullying
--------------------
List II
i. Threatening
ii. Sending embarrassing photos
iii. Pushing
iv. Spreading rumours
Codes:
(1) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
(2) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
(3) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(4) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i
69. Discriminatory barriers that prevent women from rising to positions of power or responsibility and advancing to higher positions within an organisation simply because they are women are called:
(1) Gender discrimination
(2) Glass cliff effect
(3) Glass ceiling effect
(4) Glass floor effect
70. The approach to health psychology that plays important role towards understanding the political nature of human existence, freedom of thought and compassion for others:
(1) Clinical Health Psychology
(2) Public Health Psychology
(3) Community Health Psychology
(4) Critical Health Psychology
71. Which spiritual tradition stated that "the person is a composite of consciousness, mind and body"?
(1) Buddhism
(2) Bhagavad Gita
(3) Sufism
(4) Integral yoga
72. Who opened the first experimental psychology laboratory in India?
(1) Brajendra Nath
(2) Dr. Uma Chaudhary
(3) Girindrasekhar Bose
(4) Dr. N.N. Sengupta
73. Who is the founder of National Institute of Mental Health and Neuro Sciences (NIMHANS) Bengaluru?
(1) Dr. M.V. Govindaswamy
(2) Dr. H.N. Murthy
(3) Dr. R.M. Varma
(4) Dr. Girishwar Misra
74. The term 'Psychology' was coined by:
(1) Rudolf Göckel
(2) William Hamilton
(3) Josef Breuer
(4) William James
75. Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below :
List I
a. Socrates
b. Hippocrates
c. Plato
d. Pythagoras
----------------------
List II
i. Immortality of the soul and reincarnation
ii. Metaphysical and ethical questions
iii. Collaborative approach
iv. Four Humours
Codes:
(1) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv
(2) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
(3) a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii
(4) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv
76. Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below :
List I
a. Liébault
c. Anton Mesmer
d. Gustav Fechner
---------------------
List II
i. Experimental Psychology
ii. Psychophysics
iii. Animal Magnetism
iv. Nancy School
Codes:
(1) a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii
(2) a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii
(3) a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i
(4) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv
77. Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below :
List I
a. Epistemology
b. Paradigm
c. Ontology
d. Phenomenology
--------------------------
List II
i. Study of existence
ii. Study of subjective experience
iii. Study of knowledge acquisition
iv. Standard or set of ideas
Codes:
(1) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv
(2) a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i
(3) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
(4) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
78. Examine the following statements and select the correct option.
Assertion (A): Social order is created and maintained through the everyday interactions and practices of individuals.
Reason (R): People use common sense, knowledge and shared practices to produce and sustain social reality.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.
79. Carefully examine the following statements:
Assertion (A) Philosophical view is that all of the reality can be reduced to a single substance/principle.
Reason (R): Diverse phenomena observed in the universe are manifestations of one fundamental substance.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(1) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(2) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
80. The practice of integral yoga includes which of the following?
(i) Asana
(ii) Pranayama
(iii) Meditation
(iv) Self-concentration
(1) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(2) (i), (ii) and (iv) only
(3) (i), (iii) and (iv) only
(4) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only
81. Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below :
List I
a. Active variable
b. Attribute variable
c. Continuous variable
d. Categorical variable
-------------------------
List II
i. Measures values within a given range
ii. Manipulated by investigator
iii. Measures in number
iv. Measures in terms of quality
Codes:
(1) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i
(2) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv
(3) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
(4) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii
82. Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below:
List I
a. Simple Hypothesis
b. Null Hypothesis
c. Directional Hypothesis
d. Non-directional Hypothesis
-----------------------
List II
i. No relationship between dependent and independent variables
ii. Predicts the direction of difference between two variables
iii. Relationship between one dependent and one independent variable
iv. Predicts the direction of relationship between two variables
Codes:
(1) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv
(2) a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii
(3) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
(4) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i
83. The tendency to agree with a statement on a questionnaire, regardless of its content is termed as
(1) Acquiescence
(2) Social desirability
(3) Bias of extreme responding
(4) Random responding
84. Examine the statements, Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and choose the correct answer:
Assertion (A): Probability sample makes use of random sampling.
Reason (R): Research can be done based on gender, religion, etc.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
85. Uses of interview method:
(i) Helps to identify variables and present the other phases of research.
(ii) Includes Questions as measurement instruments.
(iii) Goes deeper into the motivation of respondents and their reasons for responding as they do.
(iv) Validates the data collected from other methods.
Choose the correct answer:
(1) (i), (iii) and (iv) only
(2) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(3) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
(4) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only
86. Statistical power refers to the:
(1) Probability of getting a significant result if the research hypothesis is true
(2) Probability of not getting a significant result if the research hypothesis is true
(3) Probability of getting a significant result if the research hypothesis is false
(4) Probability that a study will produce a statistically significant result
87. The normal probability curve does not include which of the following characteristics?
(1) Curve is perfectly symmetrical.
(2) Values of mean, median and mode are different.
(3) The value of curve is 0-263.
(4) It extends from minus infinity to plus infinity.
88. Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below :
List I
a. ANOVA
b. ANCOVA
c. MANOVA
d. MANCOVA
-------------
List II
i. Has adjusted dependent variable
ii. Measures the difference between several sample means
iii. Has control over continuous independent variables
iv. Has multiple dependent variables
Codes:
(1) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
(2) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(3) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(4) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
89. Which of the following is true about Randomized Block Design?
(1) When the number of treatments is increased, the block size will decrease
(2) Can be used even when some values are missing
(3) Not suitable when number of treatments is more
(4) Provides less information compared to completely randomized design
90. Which of the following is not true about MANOVA?
(1) There is more than one dependent variable
(2) Would give an overall F value
(3) Usually followed by univariate analysis of variance
(4) The effect of covariate is adjusted
91. Which one of the following is true about computerized tests?
(1) Men have an advantage over women because they are more experienced with computers.
(2) Computer-based test administration often comprises the psychometric quality of tests.
(3) Test takers cannot use the same strategies they use when responding to paper and pencil tests.
(4) Computer-based tests are not as fair as traditional tests.
92. Univariate statistics are:
(i) Mean
(ii) Standard Deviation
(iii) Regression
(iv) ANOVA
Choose the correct answer:
(1) (i) and (ii)
(2) (i) and (iv)
(3) (ii) and (iii)
(4) (i) and (iii)
93. What would you calculate if you wanted to find out whether individuals who took a test performed very similar to or very different from one another?
(1) Descriptive Statistics
(2) Frequency Distributions
(3) Measures of Central Tendency
(4) Measures of Variation
94. Which one of the following standard scores changes the unit of measurement?
(1) Percentage
(2) Percentile
(3) Z-score
(4) T-score
95. The standard score that always has mean of 50 and a standard deviation of 10 is
(1) Percentiles
(2) Standard deviation
(3) T-scores
(4) Z-scores
96. In descriptive statistics, Quartile Deviation is the difference between the following:
(1) 2 and 4 Quartile
(2) 3 and 4 Quartile
(3) 1 and 3 Quartile
(4) 1 and 2 Quartile
97. In a normal distribution, approximately what percentage of test scores will fall between 1 standard deviation below the mean and 1 standard deviation above the mean?
(1) 13.6%
(2) 34.1%
(3) 68%
(4) 95%
98. In split-half method, an adjustment will be made to compensate for splitting the test into halves. The method used to make the adjustment is:
(1) Coefficient Alpha
(2) Spearman-Brown Prophecy formula
(3) KR-20
(4) Product Moment Correlation
99. Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below :
List I
a. ANOVA
b. Product Moment Correlation
c. Random Table
d. Generalizability Theory
----------------------------------
List II
i. Cronbach et al
ii. Yates
iii. Pearson
iv. Fisher
Codes:
(1) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(2) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i
(3) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
(4) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
100. Generalizability theory is associated with
(1) Analysis of Variance
(2) Cohen's Kappa
(3) Interrater Reliability
(4) Pearson Product Moment Correlation
kset , KSET result 2024, KSET exam date 2024, KSET application 2024, KSET 2024, KSET application, KSET result 2024 link, KSET hall ticket 2024, kea KSET, kea KSET result 2024,
kset , KSET result 2024, KSET exam date 2024, KSET application 2024, KSET 2024, KSET application, KSET result 2024 link, KSET hall ticket 2024, kea KSET, kea KSET result 2024,
kset , KSET result 2024, KSET exam date 2024, KSET application 2024, KSET 2024, KSET application, KSET result 2024 link, KSET hall ticket 2024, kea KSET, kea KSET result 2024,
Key ....
__