KSET solved question papers, KSET result, KSET exam date, KSET application, KSET hall ticket
Ad
_
1.How does Public Administration differ from Business Administration?
a) Because of management structure and process
b) Because of emphasis on efficiency
c) Because of political and legal constraints on decision-making
d) Because of speed of delivery
(1) a and b
(2) b and c
(3) a only
(4) c only
2. Who authored the book 'Prismatic Society Revisited'?
(1) David Shuman
(2) F.W. Riggs
(3) Max Weber
(4) James D. Mooney
3. Arrange the following events in chronological order:
a) First Minnowbrook Conference
b) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
c) Appleby Report
d) Lee Commission
(1) a, b, c, d
(2) d, c, b, a
(3) b, a, d, c
(4) d, b, a, c
4. Which among the following is NOT a component of New Public Administration?
(1) Change
(2) Economy
(3) Efficiency
(4) Neutrality
5. What was the major conclusion of the 'Bank Wiring' experiment by Elton Mayo?
(1) Workers are motivated by factors other than satisfaction of economic needs
(2) The recruitment system is key to production efficiency
(3) Optimum efficiency can be achieved through better infrastructure
(4) Economic satisfaction of needs is the sole factor in improving efficiency.
6. Find out the WRONG pair:
(1) Public administration is a detailed and systematic application of law - Woodrow Wilson
(2) Public Administration consists of all those operations having for their purpose the fulfilment of public policy as declared by authority -- Luther Gulick
(3) Public administration is concerned with 'what' and 'how' of the government Marshall E Dimock
(4) Public administration is the art and science of management as applied to the affairs of the state - Dwight Waldo
7. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Only through an effective administrative system can goals of socio-ecomomic development and nation-building be achieved.
Reason (R): The role of bureaucracy as an agent of socio-economic change becomes important in the development process.
In the context of the above statements, which of the following is true?
(1) (A) is false but (R) is true
(2) (A) is true but (R) is false
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
8. Match List-l with List-II:
List-I
a) First Minnowbrook Conference
b) Comparative Administrative Group
c) American Society for Public Administration
d) Reinventing Government
-------------
List-II
i. 1939
ii. 1968
iii. 1960
iv. 1980
Find out the correct answer from the codes given below:
(1) a - i b - ii c - iv, d - iii
(2) a-iii, b-i, c - iv d - ii
(3) a - ii, b - iii, c - i, d - iv
(4) a-iv, b-ii, c - iii d-i
(1) Elton Mayo
(2) M.P. Follett
(3) McGregor
(4) Chris Argyris
10. Which among the following is NOT a book authored by Peter F Drucker?
(1) The New Society
(2) The Age of Discontinuity
(4) The Future of Industrial Management
11. The idea of managerialism belongs to
(1) Comparative Public Administration
(2) New Public Service
(3) New Public Choice
12. Identify the strategies proposed by M.P. Follett to resolve conflicts
(1) Decentralisation, Compromise and Integration
(2) Domination, Compromise and Delegation
(3) Domination, Compromise and Integration
(4) Decentralisation, Compromise and Cohabitation
13. Who among the following is associated with 'Ladder of Inference'?
(1) Rensis Likert
(2) Chris Argyris
(3) Abraham Maslow
(4) Frederick Herzberg
14. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): According to Kautilya, the description of state and its administration apparatus is a fair articulation of prevailing state of affairs.
Reason (R): The conception of state and administration is taken as an inseparable entity of state.
On the basis of the above statements which among the following is true?
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the right explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the right explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true
15. The British concept of Civil Service neutrality is laid down by
(1) Fulton Committee
(2) Kothari Committee
(3) Masterman Committee
(4) Haldane Committee
16. Consider the following statements
Assertion (A): The Constitution of India establishes a governmental system which combines the features of federalism and unitarianism
Reason (R): The Residuary powers under the Constitution have been granted to the political units framing the federation.
On the basis of the above statements which among the following is true?
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the true explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true
17. Which among the following is NOT the principles of Mission Karmayogi?
(1) Lifelong learning
(2) Move beyond silos in the govt.
(3) 70-20-10 mandate
(4) Establishment of biased system of evaluation
18. Who has the right to convene the joint session of the two Houses of Parliament in India?
(1) The Prime Minister
(2) The President
(3) The Vice-President
(4) The Speaker
19. Which among the following is NOT a major component of e-Pramaan?
(1) e-Authentication
(2) Single sign-on
(3) Double sign-on
(4) Aadhaar-based credential verification
20. Which of the following reports deal with the relations between the specialists and generalists?
(1) Haldane Committee Report
(3) Fulton Committee Report
(4) Kothari Committee Report
21. Which is the largest committee of Indian Parliament?
(1) The Public Accounts Committee
(2) The Estimates Committee
(3) The Committee on Petitions
(4) The Rules Committee
22. The Union Public Service Commission submits an annual report of its work to
(1) The President
(2) The Cabinet Secretariat
(3) The Home Minister
(4) The Parliament
23. How many members are there in the Estimates Committee?
(1) 12 Members
(2) 15 Members
(3) 25 Members
(4) 30 Members
24. Who appoints the chairpersons of the Parliamentary Committees?
(1) The President
(2) The Vice-President
(3) The Prime Minister
(4) The Speaker
25. Match List-I with List-Il and select the correct option from the codes given below:
List-I
a) Article 268
b) Article 280
c) Article 275
d) Article 282
---------------
List-II
i. Statutory Grants
ii. Discretionary Grants
iii. Stamp Duty
Codes:
(1) a-iii, b-iv, c- i, d- ii
(2) a-ii, b-iv, c - i, d- iii
(3) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv
(4) a-ii, b-i, c- iii, d- iv
26. Inter-State Council consists of the following members.
a) Prime Minister
b) Chief Ministers of all States
c) Chief Ministers of Union Territories with Legislature
d) Eight Union Cabinet Ministers.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(1) a and b
(2) a, b and c
(3) a, b, c and d
(4) b, c and d
27. Article _______ of the Constitution of India defines the duties of the Chief Minister.
(1) 167
(2) 168
(3) 169
(4) 170
28. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution empowers the Governor to issue Ordinance during recesses of the State Legislative?
(1) Article 210
(2) Article 211
(3) Article 212
(4) Article 213
29. When was the office of the District Collector created in British India?
(1) 1856
(2) 1909
(3) 1950
(4) 1772
30. Which of the following states does NOT have Autonomous District Council?
(1) Manipur
(2) Assam
(3) Megalaya
(4) Tripura
31. Which committee on Panchayati Raj in India talks of three phases -- "The phase of ascendancy, the phase of stagnation and the phase of decline"?
(1) Asoka Mehta
(2) Balwant Rai Mehta
(3) L.M. Singhvi
(4) L.K. Jha
32. Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): The constitutional position of the Governor of a State is the same as that of the President of the Union.
Reason (R): Theoretically, the Governor is the Chief Administrator but practically he can hardly do anything in the administration except under special circumstances
Select the correct answer from the coding scheme given below:
(1) (A) is true but (R) is false
(2) (A) is false but (R) is true
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
33. The Indian Federation can be converted into a unitary system
(1) At the time of general election
(2) By two-thirds majority of the Parliament
(3) During National Emergency
(4) By the order of the President
34. Which of the following is/are the discretionary powers of the Governor?
a) Appointment of the Chief Minister
b) Provide Advice to the President regarding President's rule in the concerned State
c) Returning a Bill to the State Legislature for reconsideration
d) Appoints the members of the State Public Service Commission.
(1) a and b
(2) a and c
(3) a, b and c
(4) c, b and d
35. "The Marshal Plan" was envisaged and implemented between which of the following countries?
(1) UK and India
(2) Japan and China
(3) Germany and Russia
(4) USA and Europe
36. Match the following Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) with their description:
SDGs
a) SDG 3
b) SDG 5
c) SDG 13
d) SDG 15
---------------
Description
i. Gender Equality
ii. Climate Action
iii. Good Health and wellbeing
iv. Life on land
Codes:
(1) a-iii, b-ii, c -iv, d- i
(2) a-ii, b-iv, c -iii, d- i
(3) a-ii, b-iii, c -i, d - iv
(4) a-iii, b-i, c- ii, d-iv
37. Given below are the two statements as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R)
Assertion (A): Public administration as an activity comprises of actions that affect the purpose or aspirations of a government. It works through the system of organization and management
Reason (R): Püblic administration has become more concerned with the process by which it participates in formulating and interpreting law to make it more correct with reference to public interest.
In the context of the above statements, which of the following is true?
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true
38. Which of the following organisations are called "Bretton Woods Institutions"?
b) World Economic Forum
c) G20
d) World Bank
Codes:
(1) b and d only
(2) a, b and d only
(3) All of the above
(4) a and d only
39. Match List-I with List-Il and select the correct option from the codes given below:
List-l
a) F. W. Riggs
b) Dwight Waldo
c) Edward Widener
d) Max Weber
---------------
List-ll
i. Bureaucracy
ii. Action-oriented, goal-oriented administrative system
iii. Administrative Historian
iv. Prismatic model
Codes:
(1) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(2) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d- iv
(3) a-iii, b-i, c- ii, d - iv
(4) a-i, b-ii, c - iii, d - iv
40. Who wrote a book entitled "The Passing of Traditional Society"?
(1) Daniel Lerner
(2) Fred W. Riggs
(3) Robert Dahl
(4) Edward Widener
41. The book "The Stages of Economic Growth: A non-Communist Manifesto" was written by
(1) Karl Marx
(2) Friedrich Engels
(3) Walt Rostow
(4) M.N. Roy
42. India has launched "National Infrastructure Pipeline" recently. Between 2020 to 2025 it envisages an investment of
(1) INR 100 lakh crore
(2) INR 1 lakh crore
(3) INR 111 lakh crore
(4) INR 11 lakh crore
43. In the context of public-private partnership the abbreviation IIPDF is
(1) India Infrastructure Project Development Fund
(2) India Innovative Project Development Fund
(3) International Institute of Project Development and Financing
(4) India Inc. Public Discussion Forum
44. Who wrote the book entitled "The Third Way: The Renewal of Social Democracy"?
(1) Charles Lindblom
(2) Fred Riggs
(3) Anthony Giddens
(4) Karl Marx
45. Which among the following committees was appointed to review the target of Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act in 2017?
(1) Rangarajan Committee
(3) Y.V. Reddy Committee
(4) K.C. Neogi Committee
46. Budget division works under the
(1) Finance Commission
(2) Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance
(3) Department of Economic Affairs, Ministry of Finance
(4) Department of Expenditure, Ministry of Finance
47. Consider the following statements:
a) To take approval, if the amount authorised by law for the current year is found insufficient - Supplementary grant
b) To take approval for money spent during a financial year in excess of amount granted for the service - Excess grant
c) To grant for special purpose and forms no part of the current service of any financial year - Exceptional grant
d) To grant to meet the proposed expenditures on a new service can be made available by reappropriation - Token grant
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(1) a only
(2) b only
(3) c only
(4) a, b, c and d
48. Which of the following articles and part of the Indian Constitution that are related to the financial relations between the Centre and the States?
(1) 245-255 in Part-XI
(2) 256-263 in Part-XI
(3) 264-293 in Part-XII
(4) 268-293 in Part-XII
49. "The Indian Constitution is a federal Constitution in as much as it established what may be called a dual polity which will consist of the union at the Centre and the States at the periphery each endowed with sovereign powers to be exercised in the field assigned to them respectively by the Constitution".
The above statement is given by
(1) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(2) Jawaharlal Nehru
(3) K.C. Wheare
(4) Ivor Jennings
50. Which of the following is/are CORRECT regarding Contingency Fund of India?
a) Article 267 of the Constitution empowers Parliament to create a Contingency Fund of India.
b) Contigency Fund of India has been constituted by the Contingency Fund Act 1950
c) The fund will be at the disposal of the executive to enable advances to be made from time to time for the purpose of meeting unforeseen expenditure
Codes:
(1) a only
(2) b and c only
(3) a and c only
(4) a, b and c
51. Match List-l with List-Il and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List-I
a) 11th Finance Commission
b) 12th Finance Commission
c) 13th Finance Commission
d) 14th Finance Commission
--------------
List-II
i. A.M. Kushro
ii. C. Rangarajan
iii. Vijay L. Kelkar
iv. Y. V. Reddy
Codes:
(1) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
(2) a-iii, b-iv, c- ii, d-i
(3) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d- iii
(4) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
52. Which of the following taxation methods, has increasing rates of tax for increasing value or volume on which the tax is being imposed?
(1) Progressive Taxation
(2) Regressive Taxation
(3) Proportional Taxation
(4) Value Added Taxation
53. Arrange the following stages of the enactment of budget in proper order.
a) Presentation of budget
b) General discussion
c) Scrutiny by departmental committees
d) Voting on demands for grants
e) Passing Finance Bill
f) Passing of Appropriation Bill
Codes:
(1) a, b, c, d, f, e
(2) b, a, c, d, f, e
(3) c, d, e, f, a, b
(4) a, b, c, d, e, f
54. Which of the following policy was NOT implemented as part of the New Economic Policy?
(1) Liberalization
(2) Licensing
(3) Globalization
(4) Privatization
55. According to the ________ civil society means "all types of social action carried out by individuals or groups who are not related to, or managed by the state".
(1) ASEAN
(2) European Union
(3) USA
(4) Britain
56. Who was the founder of 'Arya Samaj'?
(1) Annie Besant
(2) Dayanand Saraswati
(3) Sarojini Naidu
(4) Swami Vivekananda
57. Who authored the book 'Justice and Beyond'?
(1) S. Krishnamurthy
(2) P.D. Kulkarni
(4) Durgabai Deshmukh
58. The International Labour Organisation (ILO) is a specialised UN agency that is tripartite in nature with:
(1) Employer, employees and women
(2) Employees, employers and children
(3) Governments, employees and women
(4) Government, employers and workers
59. People who are forced to leave their home and place of residence due to adverse effects or events that take place in their habitual dwelling are described as:
(1) Stateless persons
(2) Refugees
(3) Expatriates
(4) Internally Displaced Persons
60. Which among the following statements about the Minorities Commission is FALSE?
a) The Minority Commission works under the Ministry of Minorities
b) The National Commission for Minorities Act was passed in 1998
c) In 1984, the Minorities Commission was separated from the Ministry of Welfare
d) Minorities Commission is a non-statutorybody
Codes:
(1) a, b, c
(2) b, c, d
(3) a, c
(4) b, d
61. Which Article empowers the President of India to appoint a Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities?
(1) Article 340 Ð’
(2) Article 350 Ð’
(3) Article 360 Ð’
(4) Article 320 Ð’
62. Who founded 'liberty, equality and fraternity' as the core components of social justice?
(1) B.R. Ambedkar
(2) Mahatma Gandhi
(3) Jawaharlal Nehru
(4) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
63. According to David Miller, Social Justice depends on:
a) Circumstances and Context
b) Principles of Merit, Desert and Worth
c) Liberty, Equality and Fraternity
d) Arithmetic Equality and Proportional Equality
Codes:
(1) a, d
(2) c, d
(3) a, b
(4) a, c, d
64. Match List-l with List-ll and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List-I
b) Pitirim A. Sorokin
c) Oswald Spengler
d) Erving Goffman
---------------------
List-II
i. Social culture and dynamics
ii. Views society as a theatre stage
iii. Circulation of elites
iv. Cyclical theory of social change
Codes:
(1) a - iii, b - i, c - iv, d - ii
(2) a - ii, b - iv, c - i, d - iii
(3) a - i b-iii, c - ii d-iv
(4) a - ii, b - iv, c - iii, d - i
65. Match List-l with List-ll and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List-I
a) Adam Smith
b) Woodrow Wilson
c) David Ricardo
d) Montesquieu
---------------
List-II
i. The Study of Administration
ii. The Spirit of Laws
iii. The Wealth of Nations
iv. On the Principles of Political Economy and Taxation
Codes:
(1) a - iv, b - ii, c - i, d - iii
(2) a - i, b - ii, c - iii, d - iv
(3) a - iii, b - i, c - iv, d - ii
(4) a - ii b - iii c-i, d - iv
66. An interest group with a formal structure, established membership base and paid staff is commonly known as:
(1) Institutionalised interest group
(2) Self-interest group
(3) Special interest group
(4) Non-institutionalised interest group
67. Who among the following coined the term "Incrementalism" in public policy?
(1) Yehezkel Dror
(2) Charles Lindblom
(3) Adam Smith
(4) Harold Lasswell
68. Mission Indradhanush is related with:
(1) Children safety
(2) Rainwater harvesting
(3) Child vaccination
(4) Sea route development
69. Empirical analysis in policy analysis refers to:
(1) A broad theoretical framework of study
(2) Collection of data/facts based on inductive methods of enquiry
(3) Emphasis on values and ethics
(4) Subjective model/approaches for analysis
70. Given below are two statements one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Positivism aimed to bring scientific approaches to the topics studied
Reason (R): The essence of positivism was that the experience was the only reliable source of human knowledge
In the context of the above statements, which of the following is true?
(1) (A) is false but (R) is true
(2) (A) is true but (R) is false
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
71. The book 'Language, Truth and Logic' was written by:
(1) Moritz Schlick
(2) Hans Hahn
(3) Rudolf Carnap
(4) A.J. Ayer
72. Phenomenological approach includes:
a) Ethnography
b) Hermeneutics
c) Symbolic interactionism
d) Study of experience
Codes:
(1) a, b, c
(2) a, c, d
(3) a, b
(4) a, b, c, d
73. In which year the concept of Policy Sciences was first formulated by Harold Lasswell?
(1) 1950
(2) 1949
(3) 1956
(4) 1951
74. Policy about policies is called as:
(1) Meta policy
(2) Mega Policy
(3) Mini Policy
(4) Micro Policy
75. What are the changes made in the RTI Act 2005 through the RTI Amendment Act 2019?
a) The Central Information Commission has been granted Constitutional Status.
b) Central Government got the authority to set the terms and conditions of services of the Chief Information Commissioner and Information Commissioners at the Central and State level.
c) The time limit under which the reply need to be given by the DIO has been reduced to 15 days.
d) The power of Information Commission to impose penalty and recommend action against DIOs has been taken away.
(1) a, c only
(2) c, d only
(3) d only
(4) b only
76. Match the List-l with List-II and select the correct option from the codes given below:
List-I
a) Good Governance
b) Citizen's Charter
c) e-Governance
d) Accountability
--------------------
List-II
i. Elections
ii. Service Delivery
iii. Gram Sabha
iv. UMANG
Codes:
(1) a-iii, b-ii, c -iv, d - i
(2) a-ii, b-iv, c - ii, d - iii
(3) a-i, b-iv, c - ii, d - iii
(4) a-i, b-iii, c - ii, d - iv
77. "Without any adequate checks on a ruler's power, no form of government would be stable". Whose words are these?
(1) Plato
(2) Socrates
(3) Cicero
(4) Aristotle
78. Which among the following about Digital Divide in India is/are correct?
a) According to the Indian Inequality Report 2022, approximately 70% of the population has poor or no connectivity to digital services.
b) As per the report of NSO, most of the internet-enabled homes are located in cities.
c) The gender gap to access digital technology is high in India.
d) The linguistic digital divide is a feature of the digital divide in India.
(1) b, c, d
(2) a, b, c, d
(3) b, c only
(4) a, b only
79. Identify the RIGHTLY matched pair from the following:
(1) First Administrative Reforms Commission (ARC) - 1966
(2) First Lokpal - 2013
(3) Digilocker - 2019
(4) Information Technology Act - 1996
80. Match List-l with List-ll and select the correct option from the codes given below:
List-I
a) Public Choice Theory
b) New Public Management
c) Public Value Theory
d) Collaborative Governance
-----------------
List-II
i. Mark Moore
ii. Vincent Ostrom
iii. Ansell and Gash
iv. Hood and Jackson
Codes:
(1) a - ii, b - iii, c - iv, d - i
(2) a -i , b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(3) a -ii , b-iv, c-i, d-iii
(4) a - iv , b-iii, c-ii, d-i
81. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of good governance?
(1) Participation
(2) Centralized Decision-making
(3) Transparency
(4) Accountability
82. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R)
Assertion (A): Ethical governance means governance based on certain value premises which are "good".
Reason (R): Neglecting the merit principle by appointing friends and relatives to public positions will degrade the quality of public services.
In the context of the above statements, which of the following is true?
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true
83. Delegated legislation CANNOT be controlled by:
(1) Press
(2) Judiciary
(3) Parliament
(4) All of the above
84. Which among the following is/are correct?
a) Rule of law and Transparency are factors of Good Governance
b) Specifying what to expect and how to act if standards are not met is a principle of citizen's charter.
c) Making decision makers answerable to ones for whom decisions are made is not a feature of accountability.
d) Restructuring of government organization is a feature of new public management
(1) a, b, c, d
(2) a, b, d only
(3) a, d only
(4) a only
85. The scientific method in social sciences research is characterized by
(1) A rigid set of rules that cannot be adapted
(2) A systematic and empirical approach to study a phenomenon
(3) Rely solely on qualitative data
(4) Emphasis on subjective experiences
86. The paradigm that holds that science or knowledge creation should be restricted to what can be observed and measured
(1) Structuralism
(2) Functionalism
(3) Post-Positivism
(4) Positivism
87. The empirical formulation of propositions, stated as relationship between variables is called
(1) Theory
(2) Hypothesis
(3) Value
(4) Model
88. The tendency to collect data first and then figure out what to do with it is known as
(1) Favoured data collection
(2) Pursuing Research Facts
(3) Blind data mining
(4) Imperfect data collection
89. Which of the following is a key ethical consideration in social science research?
(1) Plagiarism of previous studies
(2) Falsifying data to fit the hypothesis
(3) Maintaining the confidentiality and privacy of respondents
(4) Ignoring informed consent from participants
90. Identify the WRONGLY matched pair:
(1) Attributes - Characteristics of people or things
(2) Case Study - Indepth examination of a single instance of some phenomena
(3) Paradigm - Summary description of a given variable
(4) Dispersion - The distribution of values around some central value
91. Match List-l with List-ll and select the correct option from the codes given below:
List-I
a) Semiotics
b) Grounded theory method
c) Open coding
d) Typology
----------------
List-II
i. An inductive approach to research
ii. Science of signs
iii. Classification of observations in terms of their attributes
iv. Initial classification and labelling of concepts in qualitative data analysis
Codes:
(1) a - ii, b - iii, c - i, d - iv
(2) a - iii, b - iv, c - ii, d - i
(3 a - iv, b - ii, c - iii, d - i
(4) a - ii, b - i, c - iv, d- iii
92. The research that is conducted to generate some initial ideas about a phenomenon is called
(1) Exploratory Research
(2) Evaluative Research
(3) Fundamental Research
(4) Fact finding Research
93. In research 'Triangulation' means:
(1) Using only one method to collect data on the same topic
(2) Using more than one method to select the sample
(3) Using more than one method to collect data on the same topic
(4) Use of qualitative research
94. The kind of sampling in which natural groups are sampled initially with the members of each selected group being sub-sampled afterward.
(1) Systematic sampling
(2) Cluster sampling
(3) Weighted sampling
(4) Modified sampling
95. Which among the following are the driving needs of self actualizers, according to Abraham Maslow?
i) Perfection
ii) Uniqueness
iii) Dependency
iv) Goodness
Codes:
(1) i, ii & iii
(2) i, ii & iv
(3) ii, iii & iv
(4) ii & iv only
★ Read the passage carefully and answer the questions 96-100:
In traditional Public Administration the personnel of government are hired through a merit system designed by the government personnel agency and often enacted in law. A merit system is designed to prevent partisan political interference in the implementation of public policy. The hallmark of such a system is neutral competence, with competence achieved through rules that protect workers from partisan political pressures and prevent them from actively participating in political campaigns.
The New Public Management approach would carry out policies of the state largely with employees who are not directly employed by the government. In the case of privatization the government would abandon the attempt to provide some services entirely and leave their provision to the private sector. Control would be achieved through the market system; if goods are overpriced, a competitor will spring up to provide them at a lower price in order to make a profit.
96. What, according to the author, is the major advantage of merit system?
(1) Enacted provision in law
(2) Government support
(3) Neutral Competence
(4) Qualified workers
97. In privatization how are services controlled?
(1) By bureaucracy
(2) By government
(3) By political pressure
(4) By market system
98. In New Public Management how are policies of government carried out?
(1) Private actors
(2) Merit Bureaucracy
(3) Market forces
(4) Legal agencies
99. Why is the merit system adopted?
(1) To prevent private actors
(2) To prevent partisan interference
(3) To achieve profit
(4) To acquire qualified workers
100. In merit system, how is competence achieved?
(1) By legal provisions
(2) By hiring qualified workers
(3) By ensuring neutrality
(4) By privatization
Key ...
-