1. Who provided an experimental code of ethics which served as a base for many other social workers seeking justice, equality and fairness for vulnerable and oppressed populations?
(1) Reamer
(2) Mary Richmond
(3) Stephen Clarke
(4) Woodcock
2. With reference to the core value of social work, consider the foliowing statements:
a) Individuality is one of the core values of social work as defined by IFSW.
b) Social Justice and competence are recognized as core values of social work by IFSW.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) a Only
(2) b only
(3) Both a and b
(4) Neither a nor b
3. ________ is considered one of the founders of system theory as is known and applied today
(1) Murray Bowen
(3) Carel E. Germain
4. With reference to the pioneers of social work, consider the following statements.
a) Jane Addams is known for her work in the settlement house movement in the United States.
b) Mary Richmond is associated with the development of the settlement house movement in the U.S.
c) Dorothea Dix played a significant role in the movement to reform mental health care in the United States.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) a Only
(2) a and c only
(3) b and c only
(4) a, b and c
5. Assertion (A): According to Carl Jung's analytic psychology, the collective unconscious is unique to each individual and develops through personal experiences.
Reason (R): The collective unconscious contains archetypes, which are universal symbols and patterns shared across human cultures.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true
6. The concept of 'Trauma-informed care' emphasizes:
(1) Providing counselling for individuals who have experienced trauma
(2) Addressing and understanding the impact of trauma on individual and community
(3) Focussing on the medical treatment of trauma
(4) Developing new therapeutic techniques for trauma survivors
7. Match the following and select the answer from the options given below:
List-l
c) Subserving
List-II
i. Tendency to attribute personal failures to external factors and success to internal factors
ii. Tendency to explain other people's behaviour by overestimating personality traits and underestimating situational factors
iii. Mental discomfort experienced when holding two conflicting beliefs or attitudes
iv. Process of evaluating one's own opinions and abilities by comparing them to others.
Codes:
(1) a-ii, b-iii, c - i, d- iv
(2) a-i, b-iii, c - iv, d - ii
(3) a-iii, b-ii, c- i, d - iv
(4) a-ii, b-iv, c - iii, d - i
(1) Defence Minister
(2) The President
(3) Home Minister
(4) The Prime Minister
9. In the following list which is NOT the core value of social works?
(1) Social Justice
(2) Dignity and worth of the person
(3) Importance of human relationships
(4) Self promotion
10. The International Federation of Social Workers was formed in which year?
(1) 1936
(2) 1956
(3) 1974
(4) 1959
11. Among the following what is the role of personality traits in the formation and development of attitudes?
(1) Personality traits have no role to play
(2) Attitudes which are in consonance of personality traits are acquired easily
(3) Attitudes which are in dissonance of personality traits are acquired easily
(4) Personality traits only affect the development of stereotypes
12. National Women Helpline number is
(1) 112
(2) 181
(3) 1930
(4) 1098
13. Which of the following is known as Extreme Poverty?
(1) Absolute Poverty
(2) Relational Poverty
(3) Situational Poverty
(4) Generational Poverty
14. The Concept 'Cultural Lag' was developed by
(1) Karl Marx
(2) Max Weber
(4) Bruno Latour
15. Assertion (A): Post-modernism rejects the idea of objective truth and universal narratives.
Reason (R): Post-modernism emphasizes the multiplicity of perspectives and deconstructs dominant ideologies.
Choose the correct answer.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true
16. Which of the following statements describes the characteristics of tribal communities in India?
i) Tribal communities generally have a close-knit social structure, often organized around clans.
ii) Most tribal communities in India are predominantly agricultural and practice settled farming.
iii) Tribal communities typically have their distinct language and dialect, often differing significantly from the dominant regional languages.
(1) (i) and (ii) only
(2) (i) and (iii) only
(3) (ii) and (iii) only
(4) (i), (ii) and (iii)
17. According to Mortimer and Simmons, which among the three ways in which primary and secondary socialization differ?
(1) Content, Context, and Response
(2) Content, Context and Culture
(3) Content, Context and Identity
(4) Content, Context and Society
18. Who among the following proposed the distinction between primary and secondary groups?
(1) Allport
(2) Emile Durkheim
(3) Max Weber
19. Match the following personality theories with their key concepts:
List-l
a) Psychoanalytical theories
b) Behavioural theory
c) Humanistic theory
-------------
List-ll
i. Self-actualizationii. Conditioning and reinforcement
iii. Id, Ego and Superego
iv. Observational Learning
Select the correct answer using the options given below:
Codes:
(1) a-iii, b-ii, c - i, d - iv
(2) a-ii, b-iv, c - i, d - iii
(3) a-i, b-iii, c - ii, d - iv
(4) a-iv, b-ii, c - i, d - iii
20. Match the following theories of personality with their respective proponents:
List-I
a) Psychoanalytical theories
b) Behavioural theory
c) Humanistic theory
d) Social learning theory
List-II
ii. Carl Rogers
iii. Sigmund Freud
iv. Albert Bandura
Select the correct answer using the options given below:
Codes:
(1) a-i, b-ii, c - iii, d - iv.
(2) a-iii, b - i c-ii, d- iv
(3) a-iii, b-iv, c - ii, d - i
(4) a - ii b - ii c - i d - iv
21. Emotional closeness among members is the central focus of this model and is reflected in struggles that occur at five stages of group -- growth; Pre-affiliation, Power and control, intimacy, differentiation and separation - developed by
(1) Tuckman
(2) Norman A. and Kurland
(3) Bales
(4) Garland, Jones and Kolodny
22. Specialist training in the area of task or work group requires a minimum of _______ hours of supervised experience in leading or coleading a task or work group
(1) 30
(2) 40
(3) 50
(4) 60
23. Who studied effectiveness of social case work?
(1) Fisher Joel
(2) Peter Drucker
(3) Adam Smith
(4) Edwin J. Lipp
24. Which character is NOT suitable for a counsellor?
(1) Empathy
(2) Incongruence
(3) Competence
(4) Objectivity
25. Which one refers to the behaviour that an individual engages in, while enacting the role?
(1) Role taking
(2) Role Playing
(3) Playing at a role
(4) Role Expectation
26. Treatment in social case work involves
(1) Counselling
(2) Environmental modification
(3) Administration of social services
(4) Counselling, Environmental modification and administration of social services
27. Social investigation is a ________
(1) Psycho-Social Process
(3) Psychological Process
(2) Physical Process
(4) Emotional Process
28. Which is the characteristic of social case work?
(1) Case work is an art of dealing with client's problem
(2) Case work is a discipline of social work profession
(3) Case work is the method of social work research
(4) Case work is a part of community organisation
29. Which of the following is NOT the model of social group work?
(1) Social goal model
(2) Remedial model
(3) Functional model
(4) Reciprocal model
30. While working with an individual client on a one-to-one basis, the relationship is:
(1) A friendly association
(2) A contract
(3) Purposeful to meet the psycho-social needs of the client
(4) A sympathetic understanding of the client
31. What term describes the process of community members in decision-making and planning?
(1) Tokenism
(2) Paternalism
(3) Participation
(4) Inclusion
32. Which step in the community organizing process involves identifying potential allies and supporters?
(1) Needs assessment
(2) Resource mobilization
(3) Advocacy
(4) Evaluation
33. Which phase of community organisation involves creating action plans and implementing strategies?
(1) Assessment
(2) Planning
(3) Evaluation
(4) Mobilization
34. The movement to alleviate corruption in India through Jan Lokpal Bill by Anna Hazare gained momentum in the year _______
(1) 2010
(2) 2011
(3) 2012
(4) 2013
35. PM Kisan Samman Nidhi is an initiative by the Govt. of India that gives farmers up to:
(1) Rs 6000 per year
(2) Rs 3000 per year
(3) Rs 4000 per year
(4) Rs 9000 per year
36. Beti Bachao Beti Padhao Programme launched on:
(1) January 22, 2015
(2) February 22, 2015
(3) March 22, 2015
(4) April 22, 2015
37. Match the following:
List-I
b) Narmada Bachao Andolan
c) Save Silent Valley
d) Jungle Bachao Andolan
-----------------
List-II
i. Gujarat
ii. Jharkhand
iii. Uttarakhand
iv. Kerala
Codes:
(1) a-iv, b-iii, c - i, d - ii
(2) a-iii, b-i, c - iv, d - ii
(3) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d - iv
(4) a-ii, b-i, c - iii, d - iv
38. People come together because of their shared concern about the inability of the society to operate as they believe it should. It reflects many factors, including a belief in its legitimacy and some precipitating event that provokes action is ________
(1) Deprivation Theory
(3) Structural strain Theory
(4) New Social Movements Theory
39. The four types of social actions proposed by sociologist _______ are Value Rational Action, Rationally Purposeful Action, Affective Action and Traditional Action.
(1) Auguste Comte
(2) Emile Durkheim
(3) Talcott Parsons
(4) Max Weber
40. Self Employment Women Association formed in:
(1) 1972
(2) 1982
(3) 1992
(4) 2002
41. Which among the following mixed methods designs uses "Social Justice" or "Power" as the Umbrella Concept?
(1) Convergent parallel mixed methods
(2) Explanatory sequential mixed methods
(3) Transformative mixed methods design
(4) Embedded mixed methods design
42. Which of the following is NOT a way in which mixing of data might occur in a mixed methods study?
(1) During data collection
(2) During data analysis
(3) During interpretation
(4) During data visualization
43. The difference between explanatory sequential mixed methods and exploratory sequential mixed methods is _______
(1) Order of Investigation
(2) The type of data collected
(3) The purpose of the study
(4) The way the data is analyzed
44. Match the following and choose the correct answer:
List-I
a) Standard Deviation
b) Correlation
c) Chi Square
d) t-test
--------------
List-II
1. Relationship between variables
ii. Association of Attributes
iii. Dispersion with distributions
iv. Significance of difference between two samples
Codes:
(1) a-iii, b-i, c - iv, d - ii
(2) a-i, b-iii, c - iv, d - ii
(3) a-iv, b-i, c - iii, d - ii
(4) a-iii, b-i, c - ii, d - iv
45. Zotero is a software used in _______
(1) Qualitative data analysis
(2) Literature review
(3) Data collection
(4) Referencing
46. The error occurs if an investigator rejects the null hypothesis that is actually true in the population is called _______
(1) Type 1 error
(2) Type 2 error
(3) Content error
(4) Beta error
47. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Statistics, is the science which deals with classification and Tabulation of numerical facts
Reason (R): These numerical facts are used for explanation, description and comparison of phenomenon
Following are the codes and choose the correct code.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false, but R is true
48. Match the following and select the correct option:
List-I
a) Participant Observation
b) Indirect Observation
c) Contrived Observation
d) Disguised Observation
List-II
i. Observation based on results
ii. Artificial Environment
iii. Unaware Participants
iv. Researcher part of Study group
Codes:
(1) a-iv, b-i, c - ii, d- iii
(2) a-iii, b-iv, c- ii, d - i
(3) a- iv, b - iii, c - ii, d- i
(4) a-i, b-iii, c - ii, d - iv
49. The correct sequence in the grounded theory research design is
a) Theoretical Sampling
b) Question Formulation
c) Coding
d) Interview
e) Analysis of memoing
f) Growing theories
(1) a, b, c, d, f, e
(3) b, a, d, c, f, e
(2) b, a, c, d, e, f
(4) b, a, d, c, e, f
50. Which of the following research types focuses on ameliorating the prevailing situation?
(1) Fundamental Research
(2) Applied Research
(3) Action Research
(4) Experimental Research
51. What is the primary objective of Social Welfare Administration?
(1) Profit maximization
(2) Resource allocation for public services
(3) Efficient administration of social services
(4) Control of public opinion through welfare programs
52. Several institutional and noninstitutional facilities have been provided for socio-economic development of the neglected and handicapped section of the society.
Identify the WRONG categories of the scheme in the sector.
(1) Welfare of physically handicapped
(2) Schemes for preventing drug addiction
(3) Financial assistance to involuntary organisation
(4) Prisoner's welfare
53. Match the following:
List-I
a) Public relations in a management function
b) POSDCORB formula
c) Planning is an assumption for future
d) Information, persuasion and adjustment to engineer public support in public relations
--------------
List-II
i.Luther Gulick
ii. Edward L. Bernays
iii. John W. Hill
iv. Terry and Franklin
Codes:
(1) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d- ii
(2) a-iii, b-i, c - iv, d- ii
(3) a-ii, b-i, c - iv, d - iii
(4) a-ii, b-iv, c - i, d - iii
54. Social Welfare Administration and social work research are called as
(1) Direct Techniques
(2) Enabling Methods
(3) Primary Methods
(4) Secondary Techniques
55. Pick the right function or activity that falls under the "enterprise determination" part characterised under the function of welfare administration.
(1) Setting up organizational structure and work assignments
(2) Staffing the agency
(3) Fact-finding
(4) Recording & Accounting
56. What are the "enterprise execution" functions of the welfare administration?
a) Planning and allocating resources
b) Setting up organizational structure and work
c) Staffing the agency
d) Decisions on the best ways of reaching their objective
(1) a and d
(2) b, c and d
(3) a, b and c
(4) a, b, c and d
57. The primary function of an advocacy NGO is to
(1) Defend and promote a specific cause
(2) Design and implementation of development-related projects
(3) Service delivery or participation
(4) Deliver relief-oriented measures
58. Consider the following statements about the recruitment process in Social Welfare Administration.
a) Recruitment in welfare organisations should be based on a transparent process that aligns with the organisation's objectives.
b) Political alignment of candidates is a crucial criterion for recruitment in social welfare agencies.
c) Recruitment processes in welfare agencies must ensure diversity and inclusivity to better serve marginalized communities.
Which of the statements is/are correct?
(1) a only
(2) a and c only
(3) b and c only
(4) a, b and c
59. Which is the process of making locked resources available for using?
(1) Grant-in-Aid
(2) Planning
(3) Commission
(4) Resource Mobilisation
60. Assertion (A): Budgeting is a plan document.
Reason (R): Budgeting is approved by board of management
Codes:
(1) (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true
61. The NEP 2020 aims to promote which form of education at the foundational level?
(1) Classical education
(2) Moral education
(3) Holistic and multidisciplinary education
(4) Technical education
62. Total No. of SDGS
(1) 17
(2) 18
(3) 16
(4) 19
63. Human Development Index is calculated using four indicators, they are
(1)
(i) Life Expectancy at birth
(ii) Mean years of schooling
(iii) Expected years of schooling
(iv) Gross National Income (GNI) per capita
(2)
(i) Life Expectancy at birth
(ii) Mean years of schooling
(iii) Expected years of working
(iv) Gross National Income (GNI) per capita
(3)
(i) Life Expectancy at birth
(ii) Mean years of life
(iii) Expected years of schooling
(iv) Gross National Income (GNI) per capita
(4)
(i) Life Expectancy at birth
(ii) Mean years of college education
(iii) Expected years of working
(iv) Net National Income (NNI)
64. Social planning meant for:
(1) Problem solving
(2) Problem creation
(3) Problems of individual
(4) Problems of refugees
65. Consider the following statements about social policies in India.
a) The National Food Security Act (2013) is an example of a universal social welfare policy
b) The National Rural Development Guarantees Act (2005) mandates that all households are guaranteed 100 days of employment.
c) The National Health Mission emphasizes preventive healthcare over curative measures.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(1) a and b only
(2) a, b and c
(3) a and c only
(4) b and c only
Grace marks
66. Match the following and choose the correct answer:
List-I
a) Sustainable Development Goal 13
b) Sustainable Development Goal 14
c) Sustainable Development Goal 15
d) Sustainable Development Goal 16
--------------
List-II
i. Life on Land
ii. Peace, Justice and Strong Institutions
iii. Climate action
iv. Life below water
(1) a-i, b-ii, c - iii, d - iv
(2) a-ii, b-iii, c - iv, d - i
(3) a-iii, b-iv, c - ii, d - i
(4) a- iii, b-iv, c - i, d - ii
67. Consider the following statements regarding the NITI Aayog in social and economic planning.
a) NITI Aayog promotes co-operative federalism by involving states in the policy making process
b) The Planning Commission focused more on economic planning while NITI Aayog places greater emphasis on social planning
c) NITI Aayog aims to replace the Five Year Plan approach with a recentralized and outcome based framework
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(1) a only
(2) b and c only
(3) a and c only
(4) a, b and c
68. Which among the following is the characteristic of the institutional model of social policy?
(1) Social welfare can be achieved through economic growth and development
(2) Social welfare is a fundamental right of citizens and should be provided universally
(3) Social welfare is a last resort and should be provided only to those who cannot support themselves.
(4) A model that assumes social welfare is not necessary.
69. Which among the following is NOT the function of NITI Aayog?
(1) Shared National Agenda
(2) State's best friend at the Centre
(3) Progress and protection
(4) Conflict resolution
70. Which of the following best describes the 'Residual welfare model' of the social policy?
(1) Welfare is a primary responsibility of the government that has to be provided universally to all citizens
(2) Welfare is provided only when individuals or family cannot meet their needs through the market or family structure.
(3) Welfare is seen as a tool for reducing inequalities by redistributing resources from the wealthy to the poor.
(4) Welfare is based on the principles of meritocracy, where only the most deserving citizen are given support.
71. The "POCSO Act" is a significant legal provision under social defence, focusing on:
(1) Exclusively punishing adult offenders
(2) Protecting children from sexual offences and providing support to victims
(3) Ignoring children's rights
(4) Promoting criminal behaviour
72. National Human Rights Commission of India was constituted on:
(1) 12th October 1993
(2) 13th October 1993
(3) 14th October 1993
(4) 15th October 1993
73.PMMY provides loan to small entrepreneurs up to:
(1) ₹10 Lakhs
(2) 15 Lakhs
(3) 20 Lakhs
(4) 25 Lakhs
74. Geriatric social work trains students in the field of:
(1) Women
(2) Children
(3) Aging
(4) Transgender
75. Schedule V and VI of the Indian Constitution are related to:
(1) Decide boundaries between states.
(2) Decide the power and responsibilities of Panchayati Raj
(3) Protection of rights of tribals
(4) Protection of minorities in the country
76. Panchayati Raj Institutions in India have brought one of the following:
(1) Eradication of untouchability
(2) Spread of land ownership to the depressed classes
(3) A formal representation of the weaker sections in the village governance
(4) Spread of education to the masses
77. 42nd Amendment of the Indian Constitution added which of the following in the Preamble?
(1) Socialist
(2) Secular
(3) Unity
(4) Socialist, Secular, Unity and Integrity
78. Dowry is defined under which Section of the Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961?
(1) Section 3
(2) Section 5
(3) Section 2
(4) Section 4
79. Which of the following treaties deal with the protection of human rights on a global level?
(1) Convention on the rights of the child
(2) Convention on Biological Diversity
(3) Kyoto Protocol
(4) United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea
80. Which of the following roles does the UNHCR play in Global Human Rights Protection System?
(1) Providing legal aid to prisoners
(2) Monitoring international human rights treaties
(3) Coordinating refugee protection and resettlement
(4) Overseeing electoral processes
81. ________ disorders are a group of problems characterized by physical problems such as pain, immobility and discomfort.
(1) Somatoform
(2) Cognitive
(3) Mental
(4) Psychosocial
82. Match the following international years with the year of their declaration:
List-I
a) International year of disabled
b) International year of old persons
c) International year of the family
d) International year of women
----------------
List-II
i. 2007
ii. 1994
iii. 1975
iv. 1981
Codes:
(1) a-iv, b-i, c - ii, d - iii
(2) a-iv, b-i, c - iii, d - ii
(3) a-ii, b-iii, c - iv, d - i
(4) a-iii, b-ii, c - iv, d - i
83. Match the following and choose the correct answer:
List-I
a) Licensing of contractors
b) Minimum wage
c) Unfair labour practice
d) Conditions of employment
-------------
List-II
i. Industrial Disputes Act 1947
ii. Contract Labour Act 1970
iii. Industrial Employment Standing Orders Act, 1946iv. Minimum Wages Act, 1948
Codes:
(1) a-iv, b-ii, c - iii, d- i
(2) a-ii, b-iv, c - i, d - iii
(3) a-iii, b-ii, c - i, d - iv
(4) a-ii, b-i, c - iv, d - iii
84. 'Six sigma' is a set of techniques and tools for process improvement introduced by
(1) Bill Smith
(2) Bill Gates
(3) Bill Clinton
(4) Bill Cosby
85. Devastating psychotic disorder that may involve characteristic disturbances in thinking, perception, speech, emotions and behaviour is known as ______
(1) Delusion disorder
(2) Schizophrenia
(3) Paraphrenia
(4) Anxiety disorder
86. Which among the following is the input-output model of industrial relations system presented by A. W. J. Craig?
(1) A model that emphasizes on employee motivation, attitude and morale
(2) A model that lays emphasis on external factors like state of technology
(3) A model that presents the actors and the context similar to those Dunlop's mode
(4) A model that presents the nexus between broad environmental changes and employer-employee relations.
87. Assertion (A): Maintaining case files is an important duty of a psychiatric social worker.
Reason (R): Case files are important sources of data collection in Mental Health Research.
Carefully examine the above statements and choose the correct answer.
Codes:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
(3) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
88. Match the following and select the correct answer:
List-I
a) Social investigation report
b) Discharge planning
c) Workmen's compensation
d) Behavioural problems
------------
List-II
i. Medical social work
ii. Child guidance care
iii. Probation
iv. Social security
Codes:
(1) a-iii, b-i, c - iv, d - ii
(2) a-i, b-iv, c - ii, d - iii
(3) a-iv, b-iii, cii, d- i
(4) a-i, b-ii, c - ili, d - iv
89. A Three Stage Model of the change process was introduced by ________
(1) Burke-Litwin
(2) John Kotter
(3) Kurt Lewin
(4) Warren Bennis
90. The concept of the 'Career Anchor' was first developed by _________
(1) Jane Mouton
(2) Edgar Schein
(3) Michael Beer
(4) Udai Pareek
91. Evaluation is self-based on reflection or social comparison, known as
(1) Self-esteem
(2) Self-awareness
(3) Self-security
(4) Self-confidence
92. Policy, Judiciary and the correctional system in India come under the components of
(1) Law and order
(2) Criminal Justice
(3) Juvenile Justice
(4) Juvenile delinquency
93. Arrange the following legislative measures aimed at protecting children from exploitation in the correct chronological order.
a) Prohibition of Child Marriage Act
b) The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act
c) The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act
d) The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act
(1) a, c, d, b
(2) d, a, c, b
(3) a, d, c, b
(4) b, c, a, d
94. NDMA is the abbreviation for
(1) National Disaster Management Association
(2) National Disaster Maintain Advocacy
(3) National Disaster Management Authority
(4) National Defence Management Association
95. UNDRR is the abbreviation for
(1) United Nations Office for Disease Risk Reduction
(2) United Nations Office for Defence Risk Reduction
(3) United Nations Office for Disaster Risk Reduction
(4) United Nations Office for Direct Risk Reduction
96. Social Justice is balance between
(1) Individual right and social control
(2) Society and Individuals
(3) Fundamental right and judicial system
(4) Individual and family
97. Match the following;
List-I
a) Care and Protection of Children Act
b) Immoral Traffic Prevention Act
c) Probation of Offenders Act
d) Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act
------------
List-II
i. 1986
ii. 2000
iii. 1958
iv. 1985
Codes:
(1) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d - iv
(2) a-i, b-li, c - iii, d - iv
(3) a-iv, b-iii, c - ii, d - i
(4) a-iii, b-iv, c - ii, d - i
98. NIDM is the abbreviation for
(1) National Institute of Defence Maintenance
(2) National Institute of Disaster Management
(3) National Institute of Disease Maintenance
(4) National Institute for Disease Management
99. "Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act" comes under which Ministry of Government of India?
(1) Ministry of Health
(2) Ministry of Women and Child Development
(3) Ministry of Home Affairs
(4) Ministry of Civil Aviation
100. Statement: Despite improvements in child health and education, disparities persist among different socio-economic and demographic groups in India.
What does this indicate about child development initiatives?
(1) Uniform approaches can effectively address all disparities
(2) Program must be tailored to target specific vulnerable groups
(3) Disparities are minor and do not necessitate special programs
(4) Focus on general improvement is sufficient to close gaps
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Official Key ....
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